Burns that cause the skin to form blisters only are referred to
as:
A.  first-degree burn.
B.  second-degree burn.
C.  third-degree burn.
D.  none of these.
E.  
Answer: 
Which light wavelengths are most harmful?
A.  visible and infrared
B.  ultraviolet
C.  infrared
D.  visible and ultraviolet
E.  
Answer: 
What might happen if the gasket is not correctly installed on an
arc welding lens assembly?
A.  The lens assembly might fall out.
B.  A welder's eyes may be subjected to ultraviolet light.
C.  The lenses will be come dirty more quickly.
D.  Welding smoke may get into the helmet.
E.  
Answer: 
Very small cracks in a welding lens can be found by which one of
the following procedures?
A.  washing the lens in water
B.  welding and watching for bright light spots
C.  twisting the lens between your fingers
D.  Small cracks are not a problem and need not be found.
E.  
Answer: 
Fatal electrical shock is possible with voltages as low as:
A.  460.
B.  220
C.  110.
D.  80.
E.  
Answer: 
Clothing worn in the welding shop should be:
A.  100% wool or 100% cotton.
B.  100% polyester or 100% nylon.
C.  25% cotton and 75% rayon.
D.  35% polyester and 65% rayon.
E.  
Answer: 
Why should the top button of a welder's shirt always be buttoned?
A.  to prevent throat burns
B.  so that the welder is neatly dressed
C.  to reduce the change of the shirt being caught in the
equipment
D.  to keep the shirt from catching on fire
E.  
Answer: 
The haze in welding shops is caused by:
A.  dust.
B.  cigarette and pipe smoke.
C.  decomposed and vaporized fluxes and metals.
D.  high-speed fans.
E.  
Answer: 
How far must oxygen cylinders be stored from flammable materials?
A.  5 ft (1.5 m)
B.  10 ft (3 m)
C.  16 ft (4.9 m)
D.  20 ft (6.1 m)
E.  
Answer: 
A.  room that is used to store acetylene cylinders must:
A.  be well lit.
B.  have a solid steel door.
C.  be large enough for two workers.
D.  be located away from halls.
E.  
Answer: 
Where would a person find information about the maximum safe rpm
for a grinding stone?
A.  on the grinder
B.  on a chart
C.  on the blotter on the stone
D.  The rpm is not important.
E.  
Answer: 
The tool rest on a grinder should be kept adjusted to within
of the face of the stone.
A.  1/4 in. (6 mm)
B.  1/16 in. (2 mm)
C.  3/8 in. (10 mm)
D.  1/8 in. (3 mm)
E.  
Answer: 
The first stage of a two-stage regulator reduces the cylinder
pressure to approximately:
A.  125 psig (8.7 kg/cm2g).
B.  175 psig (12.3 kg/cm2g).
C.  225 psig (17.5 kg/cm2g).
D.  300 psig (21.0 kg/cm2g).
E.  
Answer: 
What causes the difference in the pressure shown on the working
pressure gauge and the actual pressure at the torch tip?
A.  line drop
B.  resistance of the gas as it flows through the hose
C.  There is no difference in pressure.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
How far from the actual work should regulators be located?
A.  25 ft (7.6 m)
B.  so that flames or sparks cannot reach the regulators
C.  10 ft (3 m)
D.  so that the regulators can be easily reached
E.  
Answer: 
A.  notched nut indicates:
A.  left-hand threads.
B.  that the nut is extra strong.
C.  right-hand threads.
D.  that the nut is made of brass.
E.  
Answer: 
Shortening the arc length during a weld:
A.  increases spatter.
B.  causes porosity.
C.  increases the rate of metal transfer.
D.  reduces penetration.
E.  
Answer: 
As the welding current increases:
A.  he weld width and buildup increases.
B.  the weld spatter and width increases.
C.  the weld penetration and buildup increases.
D.  the weld width and buildup decreases.
E.  
Answer: 
An arc welding electrode that is discolored after a weld is
completed indicates that the:
A.  amperage was set too high.
B.  arc length was too short.
C.  rod angle was too steep.
D.  metal was too thick.
E.  
Answer: 
As the welding arc length increases:
A.  spatter increases and penetration increases.
B.  penetration increases and arc control decreases.
C.  spatter increases and penetration decreases.
D.  joint tracking is easier because the welder can see better and
the arc length has no effect on weld quality.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  leading electrode angle will cause:
A.  deeper penetration.
B.  a wider weld bead.
C.  faster travel speed.
D.  more spatter.
E.  
Answer: 
As the electrode angle changes from a leading angle to a trailing
angle, what happens to the weld?
A.  penetration increases and width decreases
B.  buildup decreases and width increases
C.  spatter decreases and penetration increases
D.  slag removal becomes easier
E.  
Answer: 
Which weave pattern works well on a vertical lap joint?
A.  square
B.  "T"
C.  circular
D.  figure 8
E.  
Answer: 
Most square butt joints have a root opening range from:
A.  1/16 in. (2 mm) to 1/8 in. (3 mm).
B.  1/8 in. (3 mm) to 1/4 in. (6 mm).
C.  0 in. (0 mm) to 1/8 in. (3 mm).
D.  1/8 in. (3 mm) to 3/16 in. (4.8 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
A.  leading electrode angle will cause:
A.  deeper penetration.
B.  a wider weld bead.
C.  faster travel speed.
D.  more spatter
E.  
Answer: 
Combination welding and cutting torches are most often used:
A.  to cut thick material.
B.  by schools and small welding shops.
C.  by steel mills.
D.  both a and c
E.  
Answer: 
When bleeding the pressure from a system, it should be done:
A.  very slowly.
B.  very quickly.
C.  by opening only one valve at a time.
D.  by opening both valves at the same time.
E.  
Answer: 
If two hoses must be taped together, they should be taped every:
A.  8 in. (203 mm).
B.  12 in. (305 mm).
C.  18 in. (457 mm).
D.  25 in. (610 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
Oxygen and acetylene hoses must always be color coded in which
one of the following ways?
A.  oxygen green, acetylene black or red
B.  oxygen green or black, acetylene red
C.  oxygen green, acetylene red
D.  oxygen green or black, acetylene red or black
E.  
Answer: 
Why is the pressure bled off a regulator and the adjusting screw
backed out?
A.  to prevent the diaphragm from stretching
B.  to prevent regulator creep
C.  to reduce the possibility of torch damage
D.  to stop unauthorized use of the equipment
E.  
Answer: 
Why are newly assembled hoses purged before they are used for the
first time?
A.  to get fresh gas in the lines
B.  so that the torch lights quickly
C.  to remove air from the lines
D.  to remove soot from the tip
E.  
Answer: 
How should a welding tip be tightened?
A.  with a wrench
B.  with pliers
C.  by hand only
D.  as recommended in the owner's manual
E.  
Answer: 
Turning the fuel valve off slowly may cause the torch to:
A.  overheat.
B.  pop.
C.  make a whistling sound.
D.  flashback.
E.  
Answer: 
Oil must never be used on a regulator because it could:
A.  cause a fire or explosion.
B.  contaminate the gas.
C.  clog small internal openings.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
The haze in welding shops is caused by:
A.  dust.
B.  cigarette and pipe smoke.
C.  decomposed and vaporized fluxes and metals.
D.  high-speed fans.
E.  
Answer: 
How far must oxygen cylinders be stored from flammable materials?
A.  5 ft (1.5 m)
B.  10 ft (3 m)
C.  16 ft (4.9 m)
D.  20 ft (6.1 m)
E.  
Answer: 
A.  room that is used to store acetylene cylinders must:
A.  be well lit.
B.  have a solid steel door.
C.  be large enough for two workers.
D.  be located away from halls.
E.  
Answer: 
What can be used to free an acetylene cylinder that has been
frozen to the ground?
A.  warm water
B.  hot air
C.  propane torch
D.  Nothing can be used safely to free acetylene cylinder.
E.  
Answer: 
How long must an acetylene cylinder that has been lying on its
side be set vertically before it is used?
A.  15 minutes
B.  60 minutes
C.  10 minutes
D.  30 minutes
E.  
Answer: 
When is it necessary in a weld shop to have a fire watch?
A.  when a person is welding outdoors
B.  if a person cannot see the nearest fire extinguisher
C.  when sparks are traveling more than 15 ft (4.6 m)
D.  when welding within 35 ft (10.7 m) of combustible materials
E.  
Answer: 
What type of fire extinguisher is used on electrical fires?
A.  type A
B.  type B
C.  type C
D.  type D
E.  
Answer: 
When using a fire extinguisher on a fire, it should be:
A.  pointed at the base of the fire.
B.  moved up and down to cool the flame.
C.  pointed at the top of the fire.
D.  held very close to the flames.
E.  
Answer: 
At what approximate temperature can an oxygen cut first be
started?
A.  1,600 deg. F (870 C)
B.  2,800 deg. F (1,536 C)
C.  1,450 deg. F (787 C)
D.  1,275 deg. F (690 C)
E.  
Answer: 
What will happen if acetylene is used in a two-piece cutting tip?
A.  The tip may backfire.
B.  The tip may overheat.
C.  The tip may explode.
D.  All of these may occur.
E.  
Answer: 
Before making a cut with a hand torch, welders should:
A.  steady themselves.
B.  check to be sure that they have freedom of movement with the
torch along the line to be cut.
C.  practice the cutting movement.
D.  do all of these.
E.  
Answer: 
During a cut, how close should the inner flame cone be kept to
the surface of the plate?
A.  1/8 in. (3 mm) to 3/8 in. (10 mm)
B.  1/4 in. (6 mm) to 3/8 in. (10 mm)
C.  touching the plate to l/8 in. (3 mm)
D.  1/8 in. (10 mm) to l/2 in. (13 mm)
E.  
Answer: 
Cutting with a slight angle toward the scrap side of the cut:
A.  places most of the slag on the scrap side.
B.  helps the cut proceed more quickly.
C.  keeps the torch from popping.
D.  reduces the width of the kerf.
E.  
Answer: 
When cutting dirty plate, a welder needs:
A.  more preheat.
B.  a short coupling distance.
C.  more fuel gas pressure.
D.  a fast travel speed.
E.  
Answer: 
E.  xcessive cutting oxygen pressures can cause:
A.  the cut to be made faster than normal.
B.  the cut to have excessive slag left on the back of the cut.
C.  the plate to be distorted.
D.  the cut to be smoother than it would be at a normal pressure.
E.  
Answer: 
Hard slag contains how much unoxidized iron?
A.  20%
B.  5%
C.  40%
D.  10%
E.  
Answer: 
SMAW can be used on approximately what thickness range of
materials?
A.  1/8 in. (3 mm) to 1 in. (25 mm)
B.  1/16 in. (2 mm) to several feet thick
C.  1/4 in.(6 mm) to 3 ft (1 m)
D.  1/8 in. (3 mm) to 1/2 in. (13 mm)
E.  
Answer: 
Arc blow can be controlled by using:
A.  DCEN.
B.  DCEP.
C.  ac.
D.  a short electrode.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  transformer uses what type of power to produce welding current?
A.  ac or dc
B.  ac, DCEN, or DCEP
C.  dc only
D.  ac only
E.  
Answer: 
Which type of welding power producing equipment is the most
energy efficient?
A.  generator type
B.  alternator type
C.  invertor type
D.  rectifier type
E.  
Answer: 
An alternator produced what form of welding current?
A.  ac only
B.  ac and dc
C.  dc only
D.  dc, but with adjustments in rotating speed, ac can be produced
E.  
Answer: 
In welding, a series of rectifiers is used for what purpose?
A.  to control output voltage
B.  to provide dc current from ac current
C.  to prevent arc blow
D.  to increase welding speed
E.  
Answer: 
What is meant by the term "duty cycle".
A.  the purposes for which a machine can be used
B.  a typical work cycle on a part
C.  the percentage of time a machine can be used continuously
D.  the types of welds a machine can perform during a duty cycle
E.  
Answer: 
A.  splice can be no closer than to the electrode holder.
A.  5 ft. (1.5 m)
B.  8 ft. (2.4 m)
C.  10 ft. (3 m)
D.  2 ft. (0.6 m)
E.  
Answer: 
The most widely used numbering and lettering system used to
identify filler metals was developed by:
A.  ASME.
B.  ASTM.
C.  the national government.
D.  AWS.
E.  
Answer: 
General information regarding a filler metal may include:
A.  joint design.
B.  welding current.
C.  welding position.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
Load in psi required to break a test specimen is known as:
A.  yield point.
B.  charpy V notch.
C.  tensile strength.
D.  Both a and c are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
Before selecting a shielded metal arc welding electrode, the
welder must consider:
A.  type of metal.
B.  type of joint.
C.  preheating requirements.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
The number 60 in the AWS classification E6011 indicates:
A.  the minimum tensile strength of a good weld made with this
electrode.
B.  the diameter of the electrode.
C.  that a weld with the strength of 60,000 psi can be made with
this electrode.
D.  Both A and C are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welding electrode, having a 1/8-in. (3-mm) diameter, that can
be used in any position is:
A.  E7018.
B.  E6010.
C.  E11018.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
An electrode with a deep penetrating forceful arc would be:
A.  E6010.
B.  E6013.
C.  E7018.
D.  E6012.
E.  
Answer: 
The major difference between E6010 and E6011 electrodes is:
A.  E6010 can be used in any position, and E6011 cannot.
B.  E6011 has less arc stabilizers than does E6010.
C.  E6011 can be used with both ac and dc welding power, and
E.  6010 cannot.
D.  Both A and C are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
The welding electrode that produces welds with little penetration
for easier welding on thin sections is:
A.  E6011.
B.  E7018.
C.  E6013.
D.  E11018.
E.  
Answer: 
Weld design, welding processes, labor, and overhead are part of
what factor?
A.  weld strength
B.  production cost
C.  welding time
D.  welding process
E.  
Answer: 
If a weld's groove angle is decreases slightly,:
A.  less filler metal is required, and costs can be lower.
B.  a lower amperage setting can be used.
C.  the root face must be made larger.
D.  a smaller root gap is needed.
E.  
Answer: 
Square, bevel, and double-bevel are all:
A.  types of joints.
B.  edge preparations.
C.  joint dimensions.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
To make a 2G weld the plate will be mounted:
A.  vertically.
B.  flat.
C.  overhead.
D.  horizontally
E.  
Answer: 
A.  correctly sized weld should be approximately:
A.  the same size as the metal is thick.
B.  twice the thickness of the metal.
C.  equal to 1 1/2 times the joint depth.
D.  1 l/2 times the electrode size.
E.  
Answer: 
Welds that are oversized:
A.  add strength to the weldment.
B.  are better than too undersized welds.
C.  are less likely to break later.
D.  can cause the joint to fail.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  correctly sized weld will:
A.  make the joint ridged.
B.  allow enough joint flexibility to prevent cracking.
C.  keep the joint stiff and inflexible.
D.  Both A and C are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
The SMAW process is between         and           deposition
efficient.
A.  20% and 45%
B.  70% and 95%
C.  65% and 80%
D.  40% and 60%
E.  
Answer: 
What type of steel is indicated by the AISI and SAE alloy steel
number 40XX?
A.  carbon
B.  manganese
C.  nickel
D.  molybdenum
E.  
Answer: 
Plain carbon steel is basically an alloy of:
A.  carbon and iron.
B.  carbon, silicon, sulfur, manganese, and phosphorus.
C.  carbon, silicon, and manganese.
D.  carbon, sulfur, and phosphorus.
E.  
Answer: 
Low-carbon steel contains           or less carbon.
A.  1%
B.  3%
C.  0.3%
D.  0.03%
E.  
Answer: 
High-carbon steels have a tendency to be         if
welded without preheating and postheating.
A.  hard and ductile
B.  brittle and strong
C.  ductile and soft
D.  hard and brittle
E.  
Answer: 
Weldability includes:
A.  metallurgy of the filler and base metals.
B.  heat treatments of the weldment.
C.  joint design.
D.  All of the above.
E.  
Answer: 
The abbreviation AISI stands for the American Institute of
Steel Inspectors.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
The meaning of the "1" in the four digit steel number 2140 is:
A.  .1% carbon content.
B.  one of the digits used to indicate an alloy series.
C.  approximately .1% of the major alloying element.
D.  that it can be welded in all positions.
E.  
Answer: 
Mild steel electrodes that are used to weld high carbon steel
loose some of their normal ductility.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
An injector gas mixing method:
A.  uses less oxygen than the mixing chamber method.
B.  can operate with low-pressure fuel gases.
C.  can cut through a thick plate.
D.  is used only on combination torch sets.
E.  
Answer: 
An oxyacetylene cutting torch tip may have more than
preheating holes.
A.  4
B.  5
C.  6
D.  8
E.  
Answer: 
Higher preheat flame adjustment is required when:
A.  cutting thick materials.
B.  cutting round shapes.
C.  cutting oily metal.
D.  All of the above.
E.  
Answer: 
The difference between MPS and propane two-piece tips is that MSP
tips are:
A.  made from copper, propane tips are made from high conductivity
steel.
B.  are generally smaller than propane tips.
C.  not recessed while propane tips are recessed.
D.  All of the above.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  tip that is stuck to the cutting head may be removed by
striking the back of the torch head with a hammer.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Proper seating of the tip in the torch head is determined by
stopping the end of the tip with a thumb, turning on the
acetylene and sniffing for a leak.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
The proper procedure for cleaning a cutting tip is to first turn
on a small amount of oxygen, then clean the holes in the tip with
the proper sized cleaning drills and finally file the end of the
tip flat.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
A.  slight forward angle of the cutting tip when cutting in a
straight line helps to:
A.  steady the hand holding the torch.
B.  blow oxides away from the cut.
C.  prevent beveling of the cut.
D.  A and B
E.  
Answer: 
The oxy-fuel process can be used to rapidly cut:
A.  magnesium.
B.  titanium.
C.  iron.
D.  All of the above.
E.  
Answer: 
"Kindling point" is:
A.  the minimum temperature at which a metal will burn.
B.  the maximum temperature necessary to cut metal.
C.  the melting point of metal.
D.  the maximum temperature of the torch flame.
E.  
Answer: 
Slag on cuts is due to:
A.  too long a coupling distance.
B.  too fast travel speed.
C.  too little preheat.
D.  incorrect oxygen pressure.
E.  
Answer: 
The two types of slag produced by oxy-fuel cutting are:
A.  light slag and heavy slag.
B.  dense slag and porous slag.
C.  hard slag and soft slag.
D.  oxidized and reoxidized slag.
E.  
Answer: 
Group F3 electrodes (E6010 and E6011) produce welds that are:
A.  wide and have little penetration.
B.  highly built up and have little spatter.
C.  narrow and have deep penetration.
D.  deeply penetrating and have little slag covering.
E.  
Answer: 
If the current is set correctly the end of the electrode should
be discolored between:
A.  1/16" and 1/8".
B.  1/8" and 3/16".
C.  3/16" and 1/4".
D.  1/4" and 5/16".
E.  
Answer: 
If an electrode is overheated it will:
A.  produce too much spatter, but have a stable arc.
B.  produce a wide, high crowned bead.
C.  produce a deeply penetrating narrow bead.
D.  produce an unstable arc because some rod elements will be
burned out.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welder can prevent a weld from overheating by using a longer
arc length.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Most SMAW welding jobs require an arc length that is between:
A.  1/16" to 1/8"
B.  1/8" to 3/8"
C.  1/8" to 3/16"
D.  1/4" to 3/8"
E.  
Answer: 
E.  quipment is best maintained:
A.  only as it is necessary.
B.  every day.
C.  on a routine schedule.
D.  by someone other than the welder.
E.  
Answer: 
If a nut is hard to turn, you should:
A.  pull the wrench toward yourself.
B.  push the wrench with an open hand.
C.  push the wrench, holding the wrench tightly.
D.  use a piece of pipe for better leverage.
E.  
Answer: 
As compared to a 12-point socket wrench, a 6-point socket wrench
is better to use because:
A.  it fits more easily on a nut.
B.  it fits in more positions.
C.  it is less likely to slip.
D.  it is less expensive.
E.  
Answer: 
Chisels having mushroomed heads must:
A.  be used with light pressure.
B.  be used only if a person is wearing safety glasses.
C.  have the mushroomed head ground off.
D.  never be used again.
E.  
Answer: 
First degree burns:
A.  leave the skin, and possibly the tissue below the skin, white
or charred.
B.  blister, and possibly create breaks in the surface of the
skin.
C.  make the skin red and painful, but with no breaks in its
surface.
D.  blister the skin without creating breaks in its surface.
E.  
Answer: 
Third degree burns are treated by:
A.  applying cool (not iced) water, covering the area with a
sterile, non-fluffy, sterile dressing and calling an
ambulance.
B.  applying cool water until the pain decreases, then use an
antiseptic ointment and sterile non-fluffy dressing to cover
the burn area.
C.  apply cool water or, other available cool liquid that can be
drunk, then a sterile non-fluffy bandage and seek medical
help.
D.  apply cool water until the pain stops then a sterile
non-fluffy bandage.
E.  
Answer: 
Flash burns should be checked by a professional because:
A.  the welder may not know they have been burned.
B.  immediate treatment is always required.
C.  the doctor always knows best.
D.  of the irritation in the eye the welder can not always tell
whether there is something that may cause infection in their
eye or not.
E.  
Answer: 
Forced ventilation is not always required when welding:
A.  austenitic manganese
B.  steel
C.  copper
D.  zinc (galvanized metal)
E.  
Answer: 
Argon and carbon dioxide can be hazardous:
A.  if they displace the air in a confined space where a welder is
working.
B.  because they can cause fire.
C.  because they can explode.
D.  A and B.
E.  
Answer: 
MSDS information:
A.  specifies how to safely handle hazardous materials.
B.  specifies possible hazards resulting from use of a product.
is usually kept on record in the shop office.
C
is obtained from OSHA.
D
E.  
Answer: 
least, four places has no cracks and is safe to install.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
The measure of electrical pressure is called:
A.  amperes.
B.  voltage.
C.  wattage.
D.  ohms.
E.  
Answer: 
The measure of the total number of electrons flowing in an
electrical circuit is called:
A.  amperes.
B.  voltage.
C.  wattage.
D.  ohms.
E.  
Answer: 
The measure of the amount of electrical power in a welding
arc is called:
A.  amperes.
B.  voltage.
C.  wattage.
D.  ohms.
E.  
Answer: 
The purpose of a rectifier is to:
A.  regulate the amount of current flow.
B.  dampen electrical surges.
C.  step down high ac voltage shop current to low welding\
voltages.
D.  convert alternating current to direct current.
E.  
Answer: 
An electrode holder that heats up when being used may indicate
dirty or loose jaws.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Operating voltage is the same as:
A.  closed circuit voltage.
B.  short circuited voltage.
C.  open circuit voltage.
D.  constant voltage.
E.  
Answer: 
Constant current power is also known as:
A.  drooping slope.
B.  constant potential.
C.  rising arc voltage.
D.  continuous output voltage.
E.  
Answer: 
The weave pattern that works best on a horizontal butt joint
is the:
A.  circular pattern.
B.  "C" pattern.
C.  "J" pattern.
D.  "T" pattern.
E.  
Answer: 
Amperage adjustments at the machine should not be made during
welding because current changes during welding usually reduce
weld quality.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Welding with a short arc length:
A.  reduces penetration
B.  increases penetration
C.  produces more spatter
D.  makes a wider and thinner bead.
E.  
Answer: 
Welding with a short arc length produces more heat in the weld
bead.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Slag inclusions on a flat butt joint can happen if the welder:
A.  moves the electrode too fast.
B.  uses too much amperage.
C.  moves the electrode too slow.
D.  uses too short an arc length.
E.  
Answer: 
The figure 8 weave pattern is used for:
A.  cover passes in the flat and vertical positions.
B.  cover passes in horizontal and overhead T-joints.
C.  single pass welds in the flat and vertical positions.
D.  single pass welds in horizontal and overhead T-joints.
E.  
Answer: 
If when making a vertical weld bead the puddle starts to sag
the welder should:
A.  increase travel speed.
B.  increase arc length.
C.  increase the up angle of the rod.
D.  reduce the up angle of the rod.
E.  
Answer: 
Most electrical shock in the welding industry results from the
welder contacting:
A.  bare or poorly insulted conductors.
B.  electrode holders.
C.  ungrounded welding machines.
D.  wet welding cables.
E.  
Answer: 
The workpiece being welded and the frame of electrically powered
machines must both be grounded.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Dry wooden boards are adequate to insulate the welder from
potential electrical shock when working on earth surfaces.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Flash burns to the eye can result in:
A.  immediate but temporary pain.
B.  temporary loss of sight.
C.  very small areas of bleeding in the retina.
D.  infection.
E.  
Answer: 
Flash burns result in an injury most like those caused by:
A.  an electric shock.
B.  a puncture wound.
C.  sunburn.
D.  an abrasive wound.
E.  
Answer: 
The type of light that causes flash burns is:
A.  infrared.
B.  ultraviolet.
C.  high frequency visible light.
D.  low frequency visible light.
E.  
Answer: 
The hot pass should:
A.  make a convex weld bead.
B.  burn out trapped slag.
C.  ensure deep penetration.
D.  only be used on open root welds.
E.  
Answer: 
Taking a weld certification test under one agency's
specifications:
A.  qualifies a person to weld on materials of the same size and
thickness under any other agency's specifications.
B.  qualifies a person to be a welder for life.
C.  may help a person to be able to pass other agency's tests that
are similar.
D.  all of these
E.  
Answer: 
Moving an E7018 electrode too far ahead of the molten weld pool
will:
A.  allow the molten weld pool size to be controlled.
B.  make the bead penetration deeper.
C.  cause porosity.
D.  help to control the formation of icicles on vertical welds.
E.  
Answer: 
An irregular hot pass surface has what effect on the
acceptability of a weld?
A.  There is little or no effect on the acceptability of the
completed weld.
B.  All of the irregular surface must be completely removed
before welding continues.
C.  c. An irregular surface will prevent the weld from passing
codes or standards.
D.  d. An irregular surface is a weld defect, and it must be
removed.
E.  
Answer: 
Stringer beads used for the filler pass of a weld should be
overlapped:
A.  25%.
B.  50%.
C.  75%.
D.  35%.
E.  
Answer: 
How wide should a cover pass be?
A.  not more than one-quarter wider than the groove opening
B.  not more than 1/8 in. (6 mm) wider than the groove opening
C.  at least 1/4 in. (6 mm) wider than the groove opening
D.  as wide as possible in order to add strength
E.  
Answer: 
The most frequently required angle for a V-groove is:
A.  45 degs.
B.  35 degs.
C.  60 degs.
D.  37 1/2 degs.
E.  
Answer: 
Why are plates 3/8-in. (10-mm) thick or thicker grooved before
welding?
A.  to prevent distortion
B.  to control undercut
C.  to allow for deeper penetration
D.  both a and c
E.  
Answer: 
The hot pass:
A.  melts the silicon dioxide (slag) on the root pass and floats
it to the surface of the hot pass bead.
B.  floats the silicon dioxide (slag) to the surface of the hot
pass by melting the surrounding metal, but not the slag.
C.  should result in a bead that is convex (crowned in the middle)
so that greater strength can be achieved.
D.  generally uses the same filler material that is used for the
root pass on high strength open root welds.
E.  
Answer: 
When restarting a weld bead:
A.  the arc is struck in front of the bead, a long arc is held,
and then slowly reduced as the rod is brought back to the
crater.
B.  the arc is struck in the crater where a long arc is held until
the rod heats up when a normal arc length can be resumed.
C.  the arc is struck in front of the bead and quickly returned to
the crater using a normal arc length.
D.  the arc is struck in the crater, using a short arc length the
rod is then moved in a circle to spread out the weld metal
before moving down the plate.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  keyhole is:
A.  a weld defect found in the root pass.
B.  a weld defect found in the hot pass.
C.  a hole that precedes the root pass in an open root weld.
D.  a hole that is left after slag has been burnt out.
E.  
Answer: 
The cover pass should not be more than          wider than the
top of the groove opening.
A.  3/16"
B.  1/8"
C.  1/16"
D.  The same wide as the top of the groove opening.
E.  
Answer: 
Air carbon arc cutting, unlike oxy-fuel cutting:
A.  does not require a skilled operator.
B.  can be done in the flat position only.
C.  does not require oxygen reactive metals.
D.  There are no differences.
E.  
Answer: 
The primary purpose(s) of the copper coating on air carbon arc
electrodes is to:
A.  increase electrical conductivity.
B.  increase thermal conductivity.
C.  reduce accidental breakage.
D.  all of the above
E.  
Answer: 
The power source for air carbon arc cutting must have an open
circuit voltage of, at least,:
A.  50 volts
B.  32 volts
C.  28 volts
D.  18 volts
E.  
Answer: 
The air pressure supplied to a air carbon arc torch should be
between             .
A.  20 and 60 psi.
B.  80 and 100 psi.
C.  50 and 150 psi.
D.  90 psi or more.
E.  
Answer: 
Air carbon arc gouging is often used to:
A.  cut out new parts.
B.  improve part appearance.
C.  remove old welds.
D.  cut parts to size.
E.  
Answer: 
Air carbon arc requires that         be removed before work
begins on the part.
A.  paint
B.  oil
C.  rust
D.  none of the above
E.  
Answer: 
The air carbon arc electrode should extend approximately
inches from the torch when first starting a cut.
A.  6
B.  4
C.  10
D.  12
E.  
Answer: 
The most common groove made with air carbon arc gouging is a:
A.  V-groove.
B.  U-groove.
C.  bevel groove.
D.  J-groove.
E.  
Answer: 
The most widely used numbering and lettering system used to
identify filler metals was developed by:
A.  ASME.
B.  ASTM.
C.  AWS.
D.  all of these
E.  
Answer: 
Load in psi required to break a test specimen is known as:
A.  yield point.
B.  charpy V notch.
C.  tensile strength.
D.  Both a and c are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
E.  longation is measured as:
A.  the percentage that a two-inch piece of weld will stretch
before it breaks.
B.  the amount that a soft metal will stretch before it will not
return to its original shape or length.
C.  the distance between the arc and the work.
D.  a distance along the straight along the edge of the work.
E.  
Answer: 
The Charpy V notch test can be used to test metals below room
temperature to test for:
A.  brittleness.
B.  hardness.
C.  ultimate strength.
D.  None of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
As the percentage of manganese increases in iron, what happens
to the metal's properties?
A.  Hardness increases.
B.  Porosity decreases.
C.  Hot shortness increases.
D.  abrasive resistance decreases.
E.  
Answer: 
As the percentage of silicon decreases in iron, what happens to
the metals properties?
A.  Tensile strength increases.
B.  Resistance to cracking increases.
C.  Ferrite formation decreases.
D.  Oxygen levels in the metal decrease.
E.  
Answer: 
Pre-heating is required on iron carbon alloys that have more
than        % CE.
A.  40
B.  45
C.  55
D.  60
E.  
Answer: 
The number 70 in the AWS classification E7024 indicates:
A.  the minimum tensile strength of a good weld made with this
electrode.
B.  the diameter of the electrode in millimeters.
C.  that a weld with the strength of 70,000 psi can be made with
this electrode.
D.  Both A and B are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welding electrode, having a 1/8-in. (3-mm) diameter, that can
be used in any position is:
A.  E7024.
B.  E10028.
C.  E9018.
D.  E7034.
E.  
Answer: 
An electrode with a deep penetrating forceful arc would be:
A.  E6010.
B.  E6013.
C.  E7018.
D.  E6012.
E.  
Answer: 
The welding electrode that produces welds with little penetration
for easier welding on thin sections is:
A.  E6011.
B.  E7018.
C.  E6013.
D.  E11018.
E.  
Answer: 
Iron powder is added electrodes to:
A.  stabilize the arc.
B.  increase the rate of metal deposit.
C.  improve slagging properties.
D.  remove oxides from the molten weld metal.
E.  
Answer: 
Slags with high melting temperatures are used in SMAW electrodes
to:
A.  remove oxides.
B.  stabilize the arc.
C.  hold the molten weld metal in place.
D.  reduce porosity.
E.  
Answer: 
The "R" in the AWS filler metal classification system means:
A.  rutile flux.
B.  rod.
C.  reduced elongation property metal.
D.  highly deoxidized for rusted metal.
E.  
Answer: 
The carbon equivalent (CE) is used to determine:
A.  the amount of carbon in the filler and heat affected zone.
B.  the amount of carbon and other alloys in the base metal.
C.  the weldability and procedures required to weld a certain
base metal.
D.  the total amount of carbon in the weld using a given base
metal and electrode.
E.  
Answer: 
The most frequently used testing method is:
A.  the guided bend test.
B.  visual inspection.
C.  the tensile test.
D.  destructive testing.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  major difference between mechanical testing and nondestructive
testing is that most mechanical testing:
A.  destroys the product being tested.
B.  can be used only on small test plates.
C.  is used on metal up to but not more than 3/8 in. (10 mm)
thick.
D.  is used on metal thicker than 3/8 in. (10 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
Ball-shaped gas pockets trapped in a weld:
A.  are weld defects.
B.  are forms of porosity.
C.  must be removed from the weld and repaired.
D.  are all of these.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  deep cylindrical porosity, which comes upward from the root of
the weld is known as:
A.  uniformly scattered porosity.
B.  cluster porosity.
C.  linear porosity.
D.  piping porosity.
E.  
Answer: 
Inadequate joint penetration is easily located when using which
one of the following nondestructive methods?
A.  penetrant inspection or magnetic particle inspection
B.  radiographic inspection or ultrasonic inspection
C.  visual inspection or eddy current inspection
D.  penetrant inspection or ultrasonic inspection
E.  
Answer: 
Penetrant testing is an example of destructive testing.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
A.  vice and hammer are required to perform the free bend test.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
The fatigue strength of a metal is measured by:
A.  the number of cycles of stress to failure and the total
stress used.
B.  the number of cycles of stress to failure divided by the
thickness of the part.
C.  the number of cycles of stress to failure divided by the
length of the part.
D.  the total stress used divided by the cross sectional area.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  longitudinal weld crack is one that runs:
A.  across the weld area.
B.  in the same direction as the weld.
C.  in the direction the plate was rolled.
D.  from the toe of the weld into the HAZ.
E.  
Answer: 
Guided bend welded test specimens are rounded in the weld area
before testing to:
A.  allow for smoother movement though the test fixture.
B.  to make sure the grind marks are transverse to the weld.
C.  increase the sensitivity of the test to cracking.
D.  to reduce the tendency of the specimen to crack.
E.  
Answer: 
Why are codes and standards needed?
A.  to make good welds
B.  so all the welds are the same
C.  so appropriate quality welds can be made
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welding code:
A.  is a detailed listing of rules.
B.  is a detailed statement of the legal requirements.
C.  can be used as is without the need for it to be tested.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welding specification:
A.  is a detailed listing of rules.
B.  is a detailed statement of the legal requirements.
C.  can be used as is without the need for it to be tested.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
In most cases, when should the customer request a copy of the
WPS and the PQR?
A.  before any welding begins
B.  before the parts are delivered
C.  They should be delivered with the parts to ensure that the
welder was qualified to make the weld.
D.  The customer never receives the WPS or the PQR forms.
E.  
Answer: 
If the WPS test samples do not pass the applicable test then:
A.  reweld the test and try again.
B.  try using a different test.
C.  change the parameters and retest.
D.  have another welder take the test.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welder's qualification will not expire if:
A.  the welder takes a different test and & fails that test.
B.  the welder is engaged in the weld's process to the WPS for
that weld.
C.  all of the welds made according to the WPS pass the test.
D.  Both B and C are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
Most guided bent tests require:
A.  2 root and 2 face bend specimens.
B.  2 side and 2 face bend specimens.
C.  1 root and 1 face bend specimens.
D.  1 root, l face, and l all-weld metal test bend specimen.
E.  
Answer: 
Selecting the correct welding code or standard for a particular
weld is important so that:
A.  the product will not cost more to fabricate than it should.
B.  the product will be fabricated to the highest standards
possible.
C.  the product will be able to stand up to its service
requirements.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
"Qualifying a specification" is done to insure that:
A.  the welder is qualified to perform the weld.
B.  the welding tools and machinery is capable of producing a
quality weld.
C.  the procedure used is capable of producing a quality weld.
D.  a legal record is available of the qualifications of the
welder.
E.  
Answer: 
The AWS D1.1 code is used to test:
A.  structural welding.
B.  pipeline welding.
C.  pressure vessel welding.
D.  a and b.
E.  
Answer: 
In austenitic stainless steel, type 18-8 means:
A.  18% nickel, 8% chromium.
B.  18% chromium, 8% nickel.
C.  18% chromium-nickel equivalent, 8% other alloys.
D.  It is the same number for a stainless steel.
E.  
Answer: 
Carbon in gray cast iron:
A.  increases weldability.
B.  reduces ductility.
C.  raises the melting temperature.
D.  increases tensile strength.
E.  
Answer: 
White cast iron is:
A.  easily welded using oxy-fuel.
B.  practically not weldable.
C.  best welded using a shielded metal arc.
D.  welded without preheating.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  metal is said to have good "weldability" if:
A.  it can be properly welded with little effort needed to control
the procedures.
B.  the actual welding is quickly and easily performed to a high
standard.
C.  many different welding processes can be used to weld it
successfully.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
When welding metals with poor weldability special controls on
shielding atmospheres, filler metal type and fluxing material may
need to be imposed on the procedure.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
When welding high carbon steel the problem of developing a hard,
brittle, crack-prone HAZ is solved by:
A.  welding with a faster travel speed with large rods.
B.  welding with a slower travel speed with small rods.
C.  preheating and then welding with a slower travel speed.
D.  welding with a faster travel speed and then postheating.
E.  
Answer: 
Low carbon steel electrodes are generally used to weld high
carbon steel base metals.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
The electrode material that is used to weld a high carbon steel
will become harder and more brittle than if it had been used to
weld mild steel.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
What is the correct procedure for welding tool steels?
A.  anneal (make the part soft), weld the part at room
temperature, post weld heat treat to restore original
properties.
B.  anneal, preheat, weld, post weld heat treat to restore
original properties.
C.  anneal, preheat, weld, air cool.
D.  anneal, weld the part at room temperature, post weld heat
treat to relieve stress.
E.  
Answer: 
What element does your text say makes tool steel hard to weld?
A.  tungsten
B.  carbon
C.  molybdenum
D.  silicon
E.  
Answer: 
One procedure used for welding tool steels specifies one or more
layers of weld on the joint's kerf surfaces before welding the
pieces together. This is done to:
A.  dilute the alloy content of the base metal.
B.  reduce contraction stresses of the weld.
C.  reduce welding time.
D.  reduce brittleness in the HAZ.
E.  
Answer: 
Gray cast iron generally should be welded             mild steel.
A.  faster than
B.  the same speed as
C.  slower than
D.  a or b is preferred
E.  
Answer: 
Gray cast iron should be preheated from:
A.  200 - 400 F.
B.  400 - 500 F.
C.  500 - 600 F.
D.  600 - 900 F.
E.  
Answer: 
When welding gray cast iron the depth of fusion, or penetration,
should be:
A.  the same as when welding structural materials.
B.  deeper than when welding structural materials.
C.  less than when welding structural materials.
D.  a or b is preferred
E.  
Answer: 
E.  lectrodes that are used to make machinable deposits on gray cast
iron contain:
A.  mild steel
B.  chromium
C.  nickel
D.  aluminum
E.  
Answer: 
Burns that cause the skin to form blisters only are referred to
as:
A.  first-degree burn.
B.  second-degree burn.
C.  third-degree burn.
D.  none of these.
E.  
Answer: 
Which light wavelengths are most harmful?
A.  visible and infrared
B.  ultraviolet
C.  infrared
D.  visible and ultraviolet
E.  
Answer: 
Clothing worn in the welding shop should be:
A.  100% wool or 100% cotton.
B.  100% polyester or 100% nylon.
C.  25% cotton and 75% rayon.
D.  35% polyester and 65% rayon.
E.  
Answer: 
The haze in welding shops is caused by:
A.  dust.
B.  cigarette and pipe smoke.
C.  decomposed and vaporized fluxes and metals.
D.  high-speed fans.
E.  
Answer: 
How far must oxygen cylinders be stored from flammable materials?
A.  5 ft (1.5 m)
B.  10 ft (3m)
C.  16 ft (4.9 m)
D.  20ft(6.1m)
E.  
Answer: 
A.  room that is used to store acetylene cylinders must:
A.  be well lit.
B.  have a solid steel door.
C.  be large enough for two workers.
D.  be located away from halls.
E.  
Answer: 
What can be used to free an acetylene cylinder that has been
frozen to the ground?
A.  warm water
B.  hot air
C.  propane torch
D.  Nothing can be used safely to free acetylene cylinder.
E.  
Answer: 
How long must an acetylene cylinder that has been lying on its
side be set vertically before it is used?
A.  15 minutes
B.  60 minutes
C.  10 minutes
D.  30 minutes
E.  
Answer: 
When is it necessary in a weld shop to have a fire watch?
A.  when a person is welding outdoors
B.  if a person cannot see the nearest fire extinguisher
C.  when sparks are traveling more than 15 ft (4.6m)
D.  when welding within 35 ft (10.7m) of combustible materials
E.  
Answer: 
What type of fire extinguisher is used on electrical fires?
A.  type A
B.  type B
C.  type C
D.  type D
E.  
Answer: 
When using a fire extinguisher on a fire, it should be:
A.  pointed at the base of the fire.
B.  moved up and down to cool the flame.
C.  pointed at the top of the fire.
D.  held very close to the flames.
E.  
Answer: 
One advantage of a two-stage regulator over a single-stage
regulator is that the two-stage regulator can be used:
A.  for a larger number of different types of gases.
B.  with lower pressures and slower flow rates.
C.  with less chance of exploding.
D.  on higher flow rates.
E.  
Answer: 
The first stage of a two-stage regulator reduces the cylinder
pressure to approximately:
A.  125 psig (8.7 kg/cm2g).
B.  175 psig (12.3 kg/cm2g).
C.  225 psig (17.5 kg/cm2g).
D.  300 psig (21.0 kg/cm2g).
E.  
Answer: 
What causes the difference in the pressure shown on the working
pressure gauge and the actual pressure at the torch tip?
A.  line drop
B.  resistance of the gas as it flows through the hose
C.  There is no difference in pressure.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
How far from the actual work should regulators be located?
A.  25 ft (7.6 m)
B.  so that flames or sparks cannot reach the regulators
C.  10 ft (3m)
D.  so that the regulators can be easily reached
E.  
Answer: 
A.  notched nut indicates:
A.  left-hand threads.
B.  that the nut is extra strong.
C.  right-hand threads.
D.  that the nut is made of brass.
E.  
Answer: 
Combination welding and cutting torches are most often used
A.  to cut thick material.
B.  by schools and small welding shops.
C.  by steel mills.
D.  both a and c
E.  
Answer: 
An injector torch can use fuel gases with pressures as low as:
A.  4 oz/in2 (17.5 g/cm2).
B.  2 lb/in2 (140.6 g/cm2).
C.  1 lb/in2 (70.3 g/cm2).
D.  6 oz/in2 (26.3 g/cm2).
E.  
Answer: 
Injector torches can use fuel gases with pressures as low as:
A.  7 psi (0.49 kg/cm2).
B.  2 psig (0.14 kg/cm2g).
C.  6 oz/in2 (26.3 g/cm2).
D.  9 oz/in2 (39.4 g/cm2).
E.  
Answer: 
All welding tips are numbered according to:
A.  the AWA standard numbering system.
B.  the National Association of Equipment Manufacturers numbering
system.
C.  the manufacturer's own numbering system.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
Repeated use of a tip cleaner:
A.  keeps the tip clean and in good shape.
B.  makes welding easy.
C.  makes the torch easy to light.
D.  enlarges the orifice in the tip.
E.  
Answer: 
Which one of the following will affect the temperature of an
oxyacetylene flame?
A.  flame condition (neutral, oxidizing, or carburizing)
B.  purity of the gases
C.  homogeneity of the gas mixture
D.  all of these
E.  
Answer: 
The highest temperature produced in an oxyacetylene flame is
found:
A.  in the inner cone.
B.  near the end of the secondary flame.
C.  around the inner cone.
D.  along the centerline of the flame.
E.  
Answer: 
The maximum safe pressure of acetylene is:
A.  15 psig (1.05 kg/cm2g).
B.  26 psig (172 kPa).
C.  30 psig (2.1 kg/cm2g).
D.  10 psig (69 kPa).
E.  
Answer: 
Which one of the following is used inside an acetylene cylinder
to absorb the gas?
A.  calcium carbide
B.  alkaline
C.  acetate
D.  acetone
E.  
Answer: 
MSDS information:
A.  specifies how to safely handle hazardous materials.
B.  specifies possible hazards resulting from use of a product.
C.  is usually kept on record in the shop office.
D.  is obtained from OSHA.
E.  
Answer: 
Forced ventilation is not required in shops having 16 ft. ceiling
and 10,000 sq. ft. of space per welder.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
Using an acetylene cylinder too soon after it has laid on its
side may result in damage to the regulator.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
A.  leaking fuel gas cylinder should be:
A.  ventilated and posted, but not moved.
B.  moved to empty cylinder storage area and posted.
C.  moved outside, emptied and posted.
D.  moved away from all potential sources of combustion and
posted.
E.  
Answer: 
High rates of withdrawal of gas from a liquified gas cylinder
will cause:
A.  liquid to be drawn out.
B.  a drop in cylinder pressure.
C.  a lowering of the cylinder temperature.
D.  both b and c.
E.  
Answer: 
When bleeding the pressure from a system, it should be done:
A.  very slowly.
B.  very quickly.
C.  by opening only one valve at a time.
D.  by opening both valves at the same time.
E.  
Answer: 
If two hoses must be taped together, they should be taped every:
A.  8 in. (203 mm).
B.  12 in. (305 mm).
C.  18 in. (457 mm).
D.  25 in. (610 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
Oxygen and acetylene hoses must always be color coded in which
one of the following ways?
A.  oxygen green, acetylene black or red
B.  oxygen green or black, acetylene red
C.  oxygen green, acetylene red
D.  oxygen green or black, acetylene red or black
E.  
Answer: 
Why is the pressure bled off a regulator and the adjusting screw
backed out?
A.  to prevent the diaphragm from stretching
B.  to prevent regulator creep
C.  to reduce the possibility of torch damage
D.  to stop unauthorized use of the equipment
E.  
Answer: 
Why are newly assembled hoses purged before they are used for the
first time?
A.  to get fresh gas in the lines
B.  so that the torch lights quickly
C.  to remove air from the lines
D.  to remove soot from the tip
E.  
Answer: 
How should a welding tip be tightened?
A.  with a wrench
B.  with pliers
C.  by hand only
D.  as recommended in the owner's manual
E.  
Answer: 
Turning the fuel valve off slowly may cause the torch to:
A.  overheat.
B.  pop.
C.  make a whistling sound.
D.  flashback.
E.  
Answer: 
What will happen if unalloyed copper is used for piping
acetylene?
A.  A poisonous gas will be produced.
B.  A phosgene gas will be produced.
C.  An explosive compound will be produced.
D.  All of these will be produced.
E.  
Answer: 
What is the maximum pressure to which a manifold system should be
tested?
A.  2 times the operating pressure
B.  1 1/2 times the operating pressure
C.  1 1/4 times the operating pressure
D.  225 psig (15.8 kg/cm2g)
E.  
Answer: 
Oil must never be used on a regulator because it could:
A.  cause a fire or explosion.
B.  contaminate the gas.
C.  clog small internal openings.
D.  both a and b
E.  
Answer: 
Oxyacetylene welding of sheet is restricted to:
A.  thin sections.
B.  sections thinner than 11 gauge.
C.  portable welding requirements.
D.  all of these.
E.  
Answer: 
What gas protects the weld from oxidation?
A.  He
B.  C2H2
C.  CO2
D.  Ar
E.  
Answer: 
As the flame angle is increased to 90 degs., the weld pool:
A.  becomes larger.
B.  becomes smaller.
C.  has more oxides.
D.  penetrates less.
E.  
Answer: 
As the welding speed decreases, the weld pool:
A.  has no change in size.
B.  increases in size.
C.  looks flatter.
D.  has more oxides.
E.  
Answer: 
The distance between the inner cone and the pool should be:
A.  1/8 in. to 1/2 in. (3 mm to 13 mm).
B.  3/8 in. to 1/2 in. (10 mm to 13 mm).
C.  1/8 in. to 1/4 in. (3 mm to 6 mm).
D.  1/16 in. to 1/8 in. (2 mm to 3 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
As the flame distance from the inner cone to the pool increases,
the size of the weld pool:
A.  increases.
B.  decreases.
C.  cannot be controlled.
D.  does not change.
E.  
Answer: 
Large welding rod sizes can be used to:
A.  cool the molten pool.
B.  increase weld penetration.
C.  reduce distortion.
D.  weld only on thick sheet.
E.  
Answer: 
Rapidly removing the flame from a molten pool:
A.  causes the pool to rapidly oxidize.
B.  causes the pool to cool too quickly.
C.  causes the pool to solidify before it drips.
D.  prevents crater cracking.
E.  
Answer: 
Sparks flying from a weld pool are mostly:
A.  silicon oxides.
B.  iron oxides.
C.  carbon dioxide.
D.  dirt or dust.
E.  
Answer: 
If the end of the welding rod is not kept inside the flame, the
weld will be:
A.  more elastic.
B.  stronger.
C.  softer.
D.  brittle.
E.  
Answer: 
Where should the flame be pointed if two unequal sizes of metal
are being welded together in a butt joint?
A.  on the thinner metal
B.  on the thicker metal
C.  in the center of the joint
D.  on the bottom sheet
E.  
Answer: 
When welding a lap joint, the flame must be directed:
A.  on the thinner metal.
B.  on the thicker metal.
C.  in the center of the joint.
D.  on the bottom sheet.
E.  
Answer: 
During vertical welds, the molten weld pool is held in place by:
A.  surface tension.
B.  gravity.
C.  a shelf along the lower edge of the weld pool.
D.  the force produced by the torch.
E.  
Answer: 
What holds the molten metal in place when a welder is welding on
the bottom side of a horizontal pipe?
A.  flame pressure
B.  surface tension
C.  the welding rod
D.  gravity
E.  
Answer: 
What holds the weld pool on an overhead sheet?
A.  gravity
B.  surface tension
C.  force of the flame
D.  chemical attraction
E.  
Answer: 
Pipe should be gas welded when:
A.  the pipe is in a hard-to-reach place.
B.  the pipe is mild steel.
C.  the diameter of the pipe is small.
D.  there are only a few joints to be welded.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welder knows when burnthrough is about to take place when:
A.  the puddle becomes wide.
B.  the puddle begins to develop an orange color.
C.  oxides float to the top of the puddle.
D.  there is an increase in sparks in the air.
E.  
Answer: 
If the angle of the torch is increased from 45 degs. to 90 degs.:
A.  the rate of heating increases.
B.  the rate of heating decreases.
C.  the rate of heating remains unchanged.
D.  the torch will run cooler.
E.  
Answer: 
The technique of "flashing the torch off" is performed by
completely removing, and then quickly returning the flame to the
weld puddle before it solidifies.
A.  True
B.  False
C
D
E.  
Answer: 
An acetylene cylinder is filled with:
A.  liquid acetylene.
B.  liquid acetate.
C.  porous material.
D.  acetone.
E.  
Answer: 
Acetylene should not be withdrawn at a rate faster than
the total cylinder capacity per hour.
A.  one-seventh
B.  one-fifth
C.  one-half
D.  one-quarter
E.  
Answer: 
High rates of withdrawal of gas from a liquified gas cylinder
will cause.
A.  liquid to be drawn out.
B.  a drop in cylinder pressure.
C.  a lowering of the cylinder temperature.
D.  both b and c.
E.  
Answer: 
Which oxyfuel gas mixture has the highest burn rate?
A.  oxy-MAPP
B.  oxy-hydrogen
C.  oxy-acetylene
D.  oxy-natural gas
E.  
Answer: 
The major advantage of acetylene compared to all other
alternative fuel gases is:
A.  heat
B.  temperature.
C.  cost
D.  safety
E.  
Answer: 
Propane and natural gas are rarely used for purposes other than:
A.  heating and cutting.
B.  brazing and welding.
C.  cutting and welding.
D.  heating.
E.  
Answer: 
The fuel gas with the fastest burning velocity is:
A.  MAPP.
B.  hydrogen.
C.  natural gas.
D.  acetylene.
E.  
Answer: 
Ferrous filler metal rods are primarily:
A.  copper.
B.  vanadium.
C.  silicon.
D.  iron.
E.  
Answer: 
RG45 electrodes are used for:
A.  general-purpose gas welding.
B.  aircraft tubing.
C.  ASME high-pressure piping.
D.  gas tungsten arc welding.
E.  
Answer: 
RC1 electrodes are used to weld on which one of the following
types of metal?
A.  aluminum
B.  mild steel
C.  cast iron
D.  copper
E.  
Answer: 
AWS classifies stainless steel filler materials:
A.  as non-ferrous.
B.  as low-alloy steels.
C.  as ferrous.
D.  as non-corrosion resistant
E.  
Answer: 
The parts of an oxidizing flame are:
A.  inner cone and outer cone.
B.  inner cone, feather, outer cone.
C.  inner envelope and outer cone.
D.  inner cone and outer envelope.
E.  
Answer: 
Square, bevel, and double-bevel are all:
A.  types of joints.
B.  edge preparations.
C.  joint dimensions.
D.  All of the above are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  correctly sized weld should be approximately:
A.  the same size as the metal is thick.
B.  twice the thickness of the metal.
C.  equal to 1 1/2 times the joint depth.
D.  1 l/2 times the electrode size.
E.  
Answer: 
Welds that are oversized:
A.  add strength to the weldment.
B.  are better than too undersized welds.
C.  are less likely to break later.
D.  can cause the joint to fail.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  correctly sized weld will:
A.  make the joint ridged.
B.  allow enough joint flexibility to prevent cracking.
C.  keep the joint stiff and inflexible.
D.  Both A and C are correct.
E.  
Answer: 
Brazed joints can be how many times stronger than the filler
metal?
A.  1 to 2 times
B.  3 to 4 times
C.  4 to 5 times
D.  7 to 9 times
E.  
Answer: 
Brazing may not occur at a temperature below:
A.  675 degs. F (375 C).
B.  450 degs. F (232 C).
C.  840 degs. F (450 C).
D.  565 degs. F (292 C).
E.  
Answer: 
Braze welding differs from brazing in the:
A.  type of filler metal used.
B.  lack of capillary action in the joint.
C.  temperature range.
D.  type of flux used.
E.  
Answer: 
Generally, as the joint space decreases,:
A.  the joint strength increases.
B.  there is no change in joint strength.
C.  the joint strength decreases.
D.  the joint takes considerably less time to produce.
E.  
Answer: 
The ability of a joint to resist chemical attack is known as:
A.  corrosion resistance.
B.  fatigue resistance.
C.  electrical resistance.
D.  intergranular resistance.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  flux must:
A.  remove oil.
B.  promote wetting.
C.  clean dirt.
D.  do all of these
E.  
Answer: 
A.  flux is able to remove:
A.  oil.
B.  dirt.
C.  heavy oxides.
D.  only light oxides.
E.  
Answer: 
What happens if a soldered or brazed joint is overheated?
A.  The flux becomes more active.
B.  The metal becomes too viscous.
C.  Nothing happens if the joint is cooled quickly.
D.  The flux may burn up.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  flux that is active at room temperature must be:
A.  stored in specialized containers.
B.  handled with extreme caution.
C.  neutralized after the job is completed.
D.  cannot be used for tin-lead solders.
E.  
Answer: 
The paste range of a filler metal:
A.  is just above the wetting temperature.
B.  is a temperature range where the filler metal is not
completely liquid or solid.
C.  is a point where fluidity is at its highest.
D.  is the temperature at which most phase bonding occurs.
E.  
Answer: 
The temperature at which an alloy melts when heated and
solidifies when-cooled is known as:
A.  transition temperature.
B.  eutectic point.
C.  paste range.
D.  no alloy melts and solidifies at the same temperature.
E.  
Answer: 
What will happen if solders containing cadmium are overheated?
A.  The cadmium will form hazardous fumes.
B.  The alloy will have better wetting action.
C.  The joint will draw in the alloy better.
D.  It is not possible to overheat cadmium alloys.
E.  
Answer: 
The best type of flame for tin-lead soldering is:
A.  air propane.
B.  air acetylene.
C.  oxy MAPP.
D.  oxyacetylene.
E.  
Answer: 
What type of steel is indicated by the AISI and SAE alloy steel
number 40XX?
A.  carbon
B.  manganese
C.  nickel
D.  molybdenum
E.  
Answer: 
Plain carbon steel is basically an alloy of:
A.  carbon and iron.
B.  carbon, silicon, sulfur, manganese, and phosphorus.
C.  carbon, silicon, and manganese.
D.  carbon, sulfur, and phosphorus.
E.  
Answer: 
Low-carbon steel contains           or less carbon.
A.  1%
B.  3%
C.  0.3%
D.  0.03%
E.  
Answer: 
High-carbon steels have a tendency to be              if welded
without preheating and postheating.
A.  hard and ductile
B.  brittle and strong
C.  ductile and soft
D.  hard and brittle
E.  
Answer: 
In austenitic stainless steel, type 18-8 means:
A.  18% nickel, 8% chromium.
B.  18% chromium, 8% nickel.
C.  18% chromium-nickel equivalent, 8% other alloys.
D.  It is the same number for a stainless steel.
E.  
Answer: 
Carbon in gray cast iron:
A.  increases weldability.
B.  reduces ductility.
C.  raises the melting temperature.
D.  increases tensile strength.
E.  
Answer: 
White cast iron is:
A.  easily welded using oxyfuel.
B.  practically not weldable.
C.  best welded using a shielded metal arc.
D.  welded without preheating.
E.  
Answer: 
The most frequently used testing method is:
A.  the guided bend test.
B.  visual inspection.
C.  the tensile test.
D.  destructive testing.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  major difference between mechanical testing and
nondestructive testing is that most mechanical testing:
A.  destroys the product being tested.
B.  can be used only on small test plates.
C.  is used on metal up to but not more than 3/8 in. (10 mm)
thick.
D.  is used on metal thicker than 3/8 in. (10 mm).
E.  
Answer: 
Ball-shaped gas pockets trapped in a weld:
A.  are weld defects.
B.  are forms of porosity.
C.  must be removed from the weld and repaired.
D.  are all of these.
E.  
Answer: 
A.  welding process not likely to cause cracking is:
A.  ultrasonic welding.
B.  oxyacetylene welding.
C.  stud arc welding.
D.  flash welding.
E.  
Answer: 
Inadequate joint penetration is easily located when using which
one of the following nondestructive methods?
A.  penetrant inspection or magnetic particle inspection
B.  radiographic inspection or ultrasonic inspection
C.  visual inspection or eddy current inspection
D.  penetrant inspection or ultrasonic inspection
E.  
Answer: