Choose the correct statement.
A. The Copper Age is known for the use of copper; the Bronze Age for mainly tin.
B. The Copper Age is known for the use of copper; the Bronze Age for copper also.
C. The Copper Age is known for the use of copper; the Bronze Age for tin and copper.
D. The Copper Age occurred after the Bronze Age.
E. The Copper Age occurred at about the same time as the Bronze Age but in different parts of the world.
ANSWER: 

Metals that chemically unite with ? on or near the ocean bottom, are deposited near ? .
A. sulfur; continental margins
B. sulfates; continental margins
C. sulfur; rift zones
D. copper; rift zones
E. sulfides; continental margins
ANSWER: 

The Red Sea will probably become ? as time passes.
A. much warmer and saltier
B. wider and deeper
C. only deeper
D. narrower due to plate tectonics
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

Many metallic deposits found around the world were deposited
A. on the ocean bottom and elevated by volcanic action.
B. on the ocean bottom and elevated by plate tectonics.
C. at rift zones and elevated by volcanic action.
D. on continental margins and elevated plate tectonics.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

Powerful vacuums are being used to mine
A. ore deposits off the Oregon Coast.
B. ore deposits off the South American Coast.
C. manganese nodules off the South American Coast.
D. manganese nodules off the African Coast.
E. ore deposits in the Red Sea.
ANSWER: 

Manganese nodules are valued mainly for their
A. manganese, cobalt and nickel.
B. manganese, nickel and chromium.
C. copper, manganese and nickel.
D. nickel, copper and cobalt.
E. nickel, chromium and cadmium.
ANSWER: 

The global rate at which minerals are mined has
A. doubled every few years since 1968.
B. almost leveled off since 1983.
C. become 10 times greater every century.
D. doubled every century since the 1700's (Eighteenth Century)
E. doubled every decade in this century.
ANSWER: 

The gifts of the Earth's crust are often divided into the categories of
A. reserves and deposits.
B. reserves and potential deposits.
C. deposits and potential resources.
D. potential resources and reserves.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

Oil is probably formed as rich,
A. organic debris is quickly buried on a continental shelf by thick layers of sediment.
B. organic debris is buried on a delta by thick, hot layers of lava.
C. ooze develops in structural traps.
D. organic debris is quickly buried on a lake bottom by very hot lava flows.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

Moderate heating of the correct ingredients creates
A. crude oil, increasing the heat forms coal.
B. crude oil, increasing the heat forms natural gas.
C. coal, increasing the heat forms natural gas.
D. coal, increasing the heat forms oil.
E. bituminous coal, increasing the heat forms lignite coal.
ANSWER: 

Examples of fossil fuels are
A. lignite, bituminous coal and oil.
B. lignite, bituminous coal and natural gas.
C. anthracite, oil, natural gas.
D. anthracite, lignite and oil.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

Global coal reserves are put at about ? years, but the burning of coal may enhance the following problems:
A. 200 years; acid rain and Greenhouse Effect
B. 200 years; acid rain and ozone depletion
C. 200 years; Greenhouse Effect and ozone depletion
D. 100 years; Greenhouse Effect and ozone depletion
E. 100 years; Greenhouse Effect and acid rain
ANSWER: 

Nuclear or fission power can come from the
A. radiation emitted by uranium atoms.
B. radiation emitted by radioactivity.
C. slow, controlled splitting of uranium atoms.
D. slow, controlled splitting of radioactivity.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

The following areas, New Zealand, Iceland, California and Klamath Falls, Oregon
A. are sites of extensive minerals deposited from hot springs.
B. are sites of sulfide deposits.
C. are sites where remote sensing has located mineral deposits.
D. use geothermal energy.
E. use the Earth's deposits of coal.
ANSWER: 

The erosion of top soil is increasing
A. because more dry land is being farmed.
B. due to pressure from an increasing population.
C. because poverty forces farmers to use poor land.
D. because hilly and other unsuitable land is being farmed.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

The average American's standard of living (directly and indirectly) requires about
A. 10,000 gallons of water per day.
B. 2,000 gallons of water per day.
C. 500 gallons of water per day.
D. 250 gallons of water per day.
E. 100 gallons of water per day.
ANSWER: 

Kuroko-type massive sulfide deposits are believed to be associated with or formed by
A. subduction zones.
B. continental volcanism.
C. hot springs.
D. hot spots.
E. transform faults.
ANSWER: 

Remote sensing images are useful in finding minerals because
A. they show all the landscape features.
B. they show the different types of vegetation growing in an area.
C. different minerals have their own spectral signatures.
D. they allow rough geologic maps of an area to be produced.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

Copper has been extracted since antiquity from the
A. Kuroko District of Japan
B. massive sulfide deposits of Japan.
C. Troodos Massif deposits.
D. Bushveld Complex in South Africa.
E. Bushveld Copper Complex in South Africa.
ANSWER: 

A present-day environment that is typical of those that have produced coal deposits might be
A. a prairie grassland.
B. distant off-shore, continental shelf sediments.
C. a bog or swamp.
D. an alpine mountain side.
ANSWER: 

Since the Earth is ? million miles from the sun, it takes light about ? minutes to travel that distance.
A. 93; 2
B. 93; 5
C. 93; 8
D. 186; 5
E. 186; 8
ANSWER: 

The sun is over ? times the diameter of the Earth and has a mass of over ? times all the planets in the solar system combined.
A. 100; 25
B. 100; 700
C. 10; 100
D. 10; 25
E. 10; 10
ANSWER: 

Choose the terms or phrases that correctly compares the Sun to other stars.
A. middle aged, middle size, Red Dwarf
B. middle aged, very small sized, Red Dwarf
C. youthful, middle size, Yellow Dwarf
D. middle age, middle size, Yellow Dwarf
E. old age, middle size, Yellow Dwarf
ANSWER: 

Even though the Sun is one of ? stars in our galaxy, the next nearest star is still ? of times farther away than the Sun.
A. a hundred million; hundreds
B. a hundred million; thousands
C. ten billion; thousands
D. a hundred billion; thousands
E. a hundred billion; hundreds
ANSWER: 

Choose the incorrect statement concerning sunspots.
A. A single spot may last for about 11 years.
B. They come and go in cycles.
C. They indicate that the Sun rotates.
D. They can be correlated with changes in weather on the Earth.
E. They are associated with solar flares.
ANSWER: 

The spectroscope is used mainly to measure which of the following properties of stars?
A. velocity, density and chemical composition
B. temperature, density and distance
C. temperature, distance and chemical composition
D. temperature, volume and velocity
E. density, distance and volume
ANSWER: 

The composition of the Sun and stars can be determined by
A. studying the Fraunhofer lines.
B. studying the array of colors and dark lines in a spectroscope
C. studying their sprectra.
D. shining their light through a prism or diffraction grating.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

The equation E = mc2 essentially means that
A. energy can be equated with matter.
B. it takes a lot of matter to make energy.
C. energy must move fast to make matter.
D. the speed of matter has to be squared to find the energy.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

In the Sun's core, ? is fused to form ? .
A. helium ; hydrogen
B. hydrogen ; helium
C. helium ; energy
D. helium ; mass
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

It takes photons an extremely long time to reach the outside of the Sun due to the high
A. temperature of the core.
B. temperature of the radiative interior.
C. density of the core and radiative interior.
D. density of the convective zone.
E. density of the photosphere.
ANSWER: 

The parts of the Sun in order outward from the convective zone are the
A. photosphere, chromosphere and corona.
B. photosphere, corona and chromosphere.
C. radiative interior, corona and photosphere.
D. radiative zone, chromosphere and corona.
E. radiative interior, photosphere and chromosphere.
ANSWER: 

The idea of the "missing neutrinos"
A. refers to those neutrinos absorbed in the radiative zone of the core.
B. refers to the neutrinos that go through the Earth.
C. indicate that we may not understand exactly what is happening in the Sun's core.
D. indicate that we do not know how to detect neutrinos.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

The next sunspot maximum, will probably occur
A. in 2020.
B. in 2015.
C. in 2011.
D. in 1999.
E. after or about the year 2000.
ANSWER: 

Sunspots occur
A. in the corona only.
B. below coronal holes.
C. below the convective zone.
D. where large loops of magnetic tubing protrude from the Sun's surface.
E. only as individuals.
ANSWER: 

Correlation studies tend to indicate that the Earth's
A. temperature may cool during sunspot maximum.
B. temperature may cool during sunspot minimum.
C. temperature may rise during sunspot minimum.
D. rainfall may rise during sunspot minimum.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

Which of the following is the least likely to be connected with sunspot activity?
A. sediments in some glacial lakes
B. northern lights
C. tree growth
D. the number of neutrinos detected on Earth
E. sloar flares
ANSWER: 

Most of the solar wind is
A. emitted through coronal holes.
B. absorbed by the corona.
C. absorbed by the Earth's atmosphere.
D. emitted by the convection zone.
E. composed of neutrinos.
ANSWER: 

Possible links between the sun's activity and the Earth's weather and climate is the connection between
A. solar flares, solar wind and hurricanes on Earth.
B. solar flares, solar wind and thunderstorms.
C. sunspots, solar wind and atmospheric winds on Earth.
D. sunspots, fluctuations in the solar wind and thunderstorms.
E. sunspots, solar wind and hurricanes.
ANSWER: 

The two main chemical components of the Sun are
A. hydrogen and nitrogen.
B. helium and nitrogen.
C. hydrogen and oxygen.
D. helium and oxygen.
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

Who of the following is given credit for the first systematic observations of sunspots?
A. Aristotle
B. Fraunhofer
C. Galileo
D. Kepler
E. Newton
ANSWER: 

Absorption lines (dark lines) in the spectrum of sunlight allow us to determine the
A. solar constant.
B. number of sunspots.
C. size of the Sun.
D. distance to the Sun.
E. composition of the Sun.
ANSWER: 

Nuclear fusion reactions occur most often in the Sun's
A. chromosphere.
B. photosphere.
C. radiative interior.
D. core.
E. corona.
ANSWER: 

Which portion of the Sun is the bright, luminous disk that we can see with our naked eye?
A. chromosphere.
B. photosphere.
C. radiative interior.
D. spectrasphere.
E. corona.
ANSWER: 

Sunspots come and go in more-or-less regular cycles, with a maximum number observed roughly every how many years?
A. 11 years
B. 22 years
C. a few times per million years
D. 730,000 years
E. 100 years
ANSWER: 

The atmospheric drag experienced by a satellite or space station is increased
A. at night.
B. when the Earth's magnetic field is the strongest.
C. during the summer.
D. when the solar sunspot cycle is at a minimum.
E. when the solar sunspot cycle is at a maximum.
ANSWER: 

Astronomers believe that the sun has existed for about ? years and they expect it to last for another ? years.
A. 5 million; 5 million
B. 5 billion; 5 million
C. 10 billion; 5 billion
D. 10 billion; 10 billion
E. None of the above.
ANSWER: 

The term biosphere refers to
A. the whole Earth.
B. all life on Earth.
C. the surface of the Earth.
D. the surface and oceans of the Earth.
E. the part of the Earth inhabited by life.
ANSWER: 

The Gunflint Formation contains
A. extremely old bones from early life forms.
B. extremely old shells from early life forms.
C. extremely old cells from early life forms.
D. very complex fossils of the first land animals.
E. less complex fossils of the first land animals.
ANSWER: 

The oldest fossils found so far are similar to today's
A. starfish.
B. bacteria.
C. clams.
D. horseshoe crabs.
E. snails.
ANSWER: 

During the earliest time in the Earth's formation, the
A. moon was farther away.
B. moon created lower tides.
C. Earth's year was shorter.
D. Earth rotated faster.
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

The second atmosphere of the Earth (that is, the first atmosphere the Earth made for itself) perhaps consisted of
A. methane, hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
B. hydrogen, helium and water vapor.
C. helium, ammonia and methane.
D. hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapor.
E. methane, ammonia, water vapor and carbon dioxide. 
ANSWER: 

Which of the following most basic ingredients for life were perhaps delivered during the Great Bombardment by comets?
A. water
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
D. phosphorus
E. All of the above.
ANSWER: 

Choose the best answer.

The two flasks used in Stanley Miller's laboratory experiment represented the
C. atmosphere and the sea. One contained methane, ammonia, hydrogen; the other water.
D. sea and the atmosphere. One contained water; the other, helium.
E. sea and the atmosphere. One contained water; the other water vapor only.
ANSWER: 
A. Twenty-one percent (21%) of the atmosphere is oxygen which comes from ozone.
Twenty-one percent (21%) of the atmosphere is oxygen and may form ozone.
C. Twenty-five percent (25%) of the atmosphere is oxygen which comes from ozone.
D. Twenty-five percent (25%) of the atmosphere is oxygen and comes from bacteria.
E. None of the above.
 

57. Increasing the amounts of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could
A. enhance the Greenhouse Effect while a large increase in oxygen could cause spontaneous fires.
B. enhance the Greenhouse Effect while an increase in oxygen could cause an increase in ozone.
C. enhance the ozone layer while an increase in oxygen could cause spontaneous fires.
D. worsen acid rain while an increase in oxygen would strengthen the ozone layer.
E. enhance plant growth while an increase in oxygen would strengthen the ozone layer.
 

58. The Gaia Hypothesis teaches that
A. all the Earth is a biosphere.
B. the atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere work with the biosphere to form a single organism.
C. pollution can be handled by the Earth.
D. the Earth maintains the optimal conditions for life.
E. All of the above.
 

59. Choose the incorrect statement concerning rain forests.
A. They are the planet's oldest surviving ecosystems.
B. About one half of all the different living species on Earth are found there.
C. At the present rate of destruction, most of the rain forests will not be gone until the year 2500.
D. Large rain forests are still found in Indonesia and Brazil.
E. None of the above
 

60. The tropical rain forest-hamburger connection refers to
A. cutting down these forests for paper pulp to make wrappers and napkins for the fast food industry.
B. clearing trees to make room for cattle which are sold to the fast food industry.
C. the fortunes amassed by subsidiaries of fast food corporations that log these forest.
D. the large slaughter houses and meat packing plants built in cleared areas of these 
 

61. Clearing large areas of the rain forest is not productive because
A. the soil beneath the rain forests is usually not fertile.
B. minerals are leached out of the soil by rain.
C. dead vegetation on the ground is quickly recycled by bacteria and insects.
D. the land needs sophisticated attention and a lot of fertilization.
E. All of the above.
 

62. Presently there are about ? people on Earth; by the year 2020 there will probably be about ? .
A. 3 billion; 6 billion
B. 3 billion; 8 billion
C. 3 billion; 10 billion
D. 6 billion; 8 billion
E. 10 billion; 15 billion
 

63. The greatest mass extinction was caused
A. during the late Permian when a comet struck the Earth.
B. 2.5 billion years ago as the continents jammed together to form Pangaea.
C. about 250 million years ago when a comet struck the Earth.
D. during the late Permian when the continents jammed together to form Pangaea.
E. about 65 million years ago as the continents jammed together to form Pangaea.
 

64. Choose the incorrect statement concerning mass extinctions.
A. Many scientists believe one species becomes extinct every day.
B. We are in danger of greatly accelerating the rate at which species become extinct.
C. The rate of extinctions in the near future could surpass any of the Great Dyings of the past.
D. All life will probably perish after the next Great Dying. 
 

65. Many particles that enter the stratosphere
A. are not washed out by rain.
B. can linger there for over a year.
C. reflect sunlight and therefore cool the Earth.
D. color sunsets.
E. All of the above.
 

66. Short-term global climatic changes following a nuclear war would result primarily from
A. heat energy released from large numbers of nuclear explosions.
B. the elevation of radiation levels in the atmosphere.
C. the cooling effect of nitric oxides created in the explosions.
D. the cooling effect of smoke released into the atmosphere.
E. volcanism and earthquake activity induced by the explosions. 
 

67. If a major nuclear exchange occurred
A. smoke would shroud most of the southern hemisphere only.
B. circumstances would likely worsen, not improve, during the months to follow.
C. the temperature in the southern hemisphere would first rise then fall.
D. the temperature in the southern hemisphere would drop and remain below the freezing point for several years.
E. All of the above.
 

68. A nuclear winter could cause
A. endless wildfires.
B. radiation from fall-out.
C. severe water shortages.
D. toxic smog and acid rains.
E. All of the above.
 

69. The discovery of disks of dark matter surrounding some stars
A. proves the existence of life in space.
B. may mean that planets are forming.
C. proves that other large planets already exist.
D. proves that most stars are like our sun.
E. All of the above.
 

70. In terms of environmental change, the destruction of forests in which of the following regions are likely to have the greatest impact?
A. at high latitudes
B. in the northern temperature regions.
C. in the southern temperature regions.
D. in tropical regions.
 
 
 
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Bottom of Form
Prepared by: Mike MItchell
After submitting your answers, you will receive your score for this test. To receive the grade that is assigned to your score, call me or request that it be e-mailed.

Test Pilot (4.4.3) is Copyright (c)2003, The McGraw Hill Companies, All Rights Reserved.
