1.  What percentage of women give birth on their due date? 
A. 3% 
B. 5% 
C. 20% 
D. 50% 
Answer: 

2.  The birth process lasts longer for 
A. multiparous women. 
B. primiparous women. 
C. young women. 
D. short women. 
Answer: 

3.  Which of the following is true about the initiation of labor? 
A. Labor is initiated by fetal hormones. 
B. Labor is initiated by maternal hormones. 
C. Labor is initiated by placental maturation. 
D. The precise cause of labor remains unclear. 
Answer: 

4.  The precise mechanism that triggers the onset of labor is 
A. physical changes in the mother's body. 
B. genetic codes in the placenta. 
C. physical signals sent by the fetus. 
D. not yet conclusively determined. 
Answer: 

5.  Lightening occurs when 
A. the fetus drops into the pelvic cavity. 
B. the baby emerges from the birth canal. 
C. the placenta emerges from the vagina. 
D. the umbilical cord is cut. 
Answer: 

6.  The birth process consists of how many stages? 
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 5 
Answer: 

7.  The average duration of the entire birth process for first-time mothers is 
A. 1-2 hours. 
B. 5-6 hours. 
C. 8-14 hours. 
D. 1-2 days. 
Answer: 

8.  Which stage of the birth process lasts the longest? 
A. fifth 
B. fourth 
C. third 
D. first 
Answer: 

9.  The order of stages in the birth process is 
A. widening of the cervix, emergence of child, and expulsion of afterbirth. 
B. emergence of child, expulsion of afterbirth, and widening of the cervix. 
C. expulsion of afterbirth, widening of the cervix, and emergence of child. 
D. widening of the cervix, expulsion of afterbirth, and emergence of child. 
Answer: 

10.  The mild irregular contractions occurring toward the end of pregnancy are called 
A. epidural contractions. 
B. preparatory contractions. 
C. Braxton-Hicks contractions. 
D. Leboyer contractions. 
Answer: 

11.  Which of the following marks the beginning stage of the birth process? 
A. lightening 
B. quickening 
C. true labor contractions 
D. dilation of the cervix 
Answer: 

12.  During the first stage of labor all of the following occur EXCEPT 
A. contractions. 
B. quickening. 
C. dilation of the cervix. 
D. the mucous plug is dislodged. 
Answer: 

13.  What is the diameter of a fully dilated cervix? 
A. 1 cm 
B. 5 cm 
C. 10 cm 
D. 15 cm 
Answer: 

14.  A woman in labor who is experiencing nausea, tremendous pain, and her most severe contractions is in a period called 
A. transition. 
B. dilation. 
C. lightening. 
D. the "bloody show." 
Answer: 

15.  An epidural block 
A. prevents the baby from going through the birth canal. 
B. is a method for controlling the pain of labor. 
C. prevents the placenta from emerging. 
D. is a battery of tests performed on the neonate. 
Answer: 

16.  Women in transition should not push because 
A. the cervix will stop dilating. 
B. the baby has dropped into the birth canal. 
C. the baby may experience anoxia. 
D. the cervix is not yet fully dilated. 
Answer: 

17.  During which stage does expulsion of the fetus occur? 
A. the first stage 
B. the second stage 
C. the third stage 
D. the last stage 
Answer: 

18.  During the second stage, contractions 
A. help move the baby through the birth canal. 
B. help dilate the cervix. 
C. help to make the uterus more flexible. 
D. facilitate maternal well-being. 
Answer: 

19.  Jennifer is in the second stage of labor and her doctor discovers that her baby's head is too large for the vaginal opening. Jennifer's doctor will probably perform a(n) 
A. episiotomy. 
B. cesarean section. 
C. epidural. 
D. dilation. 
Answer: 

20.  Almost ---------- percent of all women who give birth in the US have an episiotomy. 
A. 20 
B. 30 
C. 50 
D. 70 
Answer: 

21.  The baby's head is large and difficult to deliver. What happens to a baby's head to help it pass through the birth canal? 
A. crowning 
B. molding 
C. bone fusion 
D. bone hyperflexion 
Answer: 

22.  In the third stage of labor, the -------- is expelled. 
A. baby 
B. umbilical cord 
C. placenta 
D. bag of waters 
Answer: 

23.  Checking whether the placenta is intact after it has been delivered is important because 
A. remaining pieces may cause infections in the mother. 
B. remaining pieces may need to be delivered within days. 
C. the placental tissue is used for medical research. 
D. a damaged placenta may indicate a need for immediate care for the child. 
Answer: 

24.  The placenta emerges from the vagina 
A. immediately after birth. 
B. 15 to 30 minutes after birth. 
C. several hours after birth. 
D. during the first stage of labor. 
Answer: 

25.  Which of the following techniques focuses on relaxation and breathing exercises to control the pain of labor? 
A. Leboyer 
B. Lamaze 
C. La Leche 
D. lightening 
Answer: 

26.  Which of the following does NOT describe the Leboyer method? 
A. Soft music replaces loud noises. 
B. The room has dim and indirect lighting. 
C. The focus is on the mother's birth experience rather than the baby's experience. 
D. The baby is placed on mother's belly to provide skin-to-skin contact. 
Answer: 

27.  Tyfany and Amanda each gave birth using the Lamaze method. Amanda was very satisfied with the experience and Tyfany was not. Why might Amanda and Tyfany have different types of experiences? 
A. Tyfany and Amanda had different needs and expectations. 
B. Their training for Lamaze was probably very different. 
C. Tyfany had a high-risk pregnancy. 
D. Tyfany had a less-skilled birthing coach. 
Answer: 

28.  Which of the following types of births has increased most dramatically over the past 20 years? 
A. cesarean sections 
B. natural, home births 
C. medicated births 
D. sedated births 
Answer: 

29.  Which of the following is NOT likely to increase the likelihood of a woman having a cesarean section? 
A. small pelvis 
B. small fetus 
C. premature rupture of amniotic sac 
D. prolonged pregnancy 
Answer: 

30.  A woman has a fetus with a transverse presentation. She is likely to 
A. have a long but safe vaginal birth. 
B. have a difficult vaginal delivery. 
C. have a cesarean section delivery. 
D. have an episiotomy. 
Answer: 

31.  A breech presentation means that 
A. the fetus is positioned with the head down. 
B. the fetus is positioned with its shoulders and arms down. 
C. the umbilical cord is wrapped around the neck of the fetus. 
D. the fetus is positioned with its feet and buttocks leading the way. 
Answer: 

32.  When the fetus is positioned with its shoulder and arms leading the way, it is referred to as the 
A. transverse presentation. 
B. Leboyer presentation. 
C. breech presentation. 
D. normal presentation. 
Answer: 

33.  Marcia's pregnancy was beginning its 43rd week. What is likely to be recommended for her care? 
A. bed rest until labor begins 
B. exercise to help move the baby through the birth canal 
C. monitoring the fetus until delivery 
D. inducing delivery with Pitocin or a similar medication 
Answer: 

34.  The "baby blues" are experienced by -------- percent of women giving birth. 
A. 10 
B. 20 
C. 50 
D. 70 
Answer: 

35.  Tanya gave birth to Nicole 3 days ago. She has been feeling sad and angry but doesn't know why. It is likely that Tanya is experiencing --------. 
A. couvade 
B. "baby blues" 
C. postpartum depression 
D. childbirth anxiety 
Answer: 

36.  Maria gave birth 2 weeks ago to a healthy son, David. She has had intense feelings of sadness and anxiety and has been unable to care for David. She is likely to be experiencing --------. 
A. couvade 
B. "baby blues" 
C. postpartum depression 
D. childbirth anxiety 
Answer: 

37.  Fathers who are supportive during childbirth have partners who are 
A. less anxious. 
B. more involved. 
C. likely to need medication. 
D. experience pain more severely. 
Answer: 

38.  Newborns' very high levels of stress hormones are related to 
A. increased levels of anxiety in the child. 
B. better breathing and increased energy levels. 
C. sleepiness. 
D. digestive disorders. 
Answer: 

39.  Newborns have catecholamine levels that are 
A. higher than patients with tumors. 
B. similar to women during delivery. 
C. similar to men during exercise. 
D. lower than men undergoing surgery. 
Answer: 

40.  The evidence concerning human bonding 
A. suggests that there is a critical period for bonding. 
B. suggests that there is a critical period only under extreme circumstances. 
C. is mixed. 
D. suggests that there is no critical period. 
Answer: 

41.  Children who are deprived of early contact with their mothers are 
A. at risk for child abuse. 
B. at risk for developmental delays. 
C. likely to experience other opportunities for developing emotional ties. 
D. at risk for poor relationships in adulthood. 
Answer: 

42.  The term neonate refers to a child who is 
A. still in the womb. 
B. 0 to 2 months old. 
C. 6 months to 1 year old. 
D. premature and needing hospital care. 
Answer: 

43.  Which of the following is NOT a task that a newborn must accomplish? 
A. Newborns must adapt to oral feeding. 
B. Newborns must change the pattern of blood circulation. 
C. Newborns must control body temperature. 
D. Newborns must adjust to light and dark cycles. 
Answer: 

44.  Samantha, who is 8 hours old, has an irregular heartbeat. This is probably due to 
A. an inborn heart condition. 
B. changes in the direction of blood flow. 
C. fear of people. 
D. the stress of controlling her body temperature. 
Answer: 

45.  Vernix caseosa is the 
A. white, waxy covering on a newborn that protects it from bacteria. 
B. term that refers to the misshapen head of a newborn. 
C. term that refers to the large genitalia of a newborn. 
D. the scientific term for placenta. 
Answer: 

46.  The purpose of the vernix caseosa is to 
A. protect a newborn from bacteria. 
B. make the newborn's skin supple. 
C. help brain development. 
D. promote feeding. 
Answer: 

47.  Which of the following is NOT one of the five vital signs examined by the Apgar scale? 
A. respiration 
B. color 
C. weight 
D. muscle tone 
Answer: 

48.  On the Apgar scale, a score above -------- indicates the newborn is healthy. 
A. 3 
B. 5 
C. 7 
D. 50 
Answer: 

49.  A newborn has a slow heart rate, slow and irregular respiration, and blue extremities; is limp; and has no reflex responsiveness. What is the likely response that is needed for this newborn? 
A. No response is needed because the baby will soon breathe better. 
B. Only minimal care is needed. 
C. The baby first needs help with temperature control. 
D. The baby first needs help with respiration and breathing. 
Answer: 

50.  When Bobby's parents brought home his new baby sister, Bobby touched her cheek with his finger. Bobby was very excited when the baby turned her head towards him. The baby was displaying the 
A. Moro reflex. 
B. Apgar reflex. 
C. rooting reflex. 
D. Palmer reflex. 
Answer: 

51.  Which of the following is not a feeding or protective reflex? 
A. coughing reflex 
B. rooting reflex 
C. sucking reflex 
D. Babinski reflex 
Answer: 

52.  In response to a door slamming, 2-month-old Katie flings out her arms, arches her back, and extends her legs. Katie is displaying the 
A. Moro reflex. 
B. rooting reflex. 
C. Apgar reflex. 
D. Palmer reflex. 
Answer: 

53.  The typical newborn sleeps on the average about -------- hours per day. 
A. 8 
B. 10 
C. 16 
D. 20 
Answer: 

54.  Tim and Anna are exhausted because 4-week-old Matthew wakes up three to four times each night. What is the most probable explanation for Matthew's behavior? 
A. He is not eating enough and wakes when he is hungry. 
B. He is not getting enough attention from his parents when he is awake. 
C. He lacks a sense of security. 
D. His sleep pattern is typical of newborn babies. 
Answer: 

55.  Why is it important to understand states of infant arousal? 
A. States influence how infants interact with others. 
B. States influence the likelihood of infant survival. 
C. Infant states provide a window to understanding parent responses to infants. 
D. Infant states relate to their physical well-being. 
Answer: 

56.  Research on newborn imitation shows that 
A. newborns can imitate arm movements better than facial expressions. 
B. most infants can imitate large motor movements. 
C. newborns imitate simple facial expressions. 
D. imitation occurs only after 1 month of age. 
Answer: 

57.  The Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale was designed to 
A. assess the respiratory functioning of newborns. 
B. assess the neurological development of an unborn fetus. 
C. identify newborns who are having trouble adjusting to the environment outside the womb. 
D. determine the genetic qualities of the newborn. 
Answer: 

58.  How many neurons does the human contain at birth? 
A. 1 billion 
B. 10 billion 
C. l00 billion 
D. 1 trillion 
Answer: 

59.  The neurons are composed of two structures that are used for sending and receiving messages. These structures are called 
A. dendrites and axons. 
B. dendrites and synapses. 
C. synapses and axons. 
D. synapses and myelin. 
Answer: 

60.  Myelination is the process in which 
A. the dendrites and axons are created. 
B. the neurons are spread throughout the brain to create its structure. 
C. the nerve cells are covered with smooth sheaths of fatty proteins. 
D. the synapses send messages to the neurons. 
Answer: 

61.  Which of the following is the part of the brain that will myelinate first? 
A. the part that controls attention 
B. the part that controls reflexes 
C. the part that control sleep and alertness 
D. the part that controls language 
Answer: 

62.  Brain development and brain plasticity continue into 
A. infancy 
B. middle childhood 
C. adolescence 
D. adulthood 
Answer: 

63.  Progressive events in brain development 
A. include proliferation of neurons. 
B. include reductions in myelination. 
C. decrease the structure and organization of the brain. 
D. decrease the unnecessary synapses. 
Answer: 

64.  Regressive events in brain development 
A. include proliferation of neurons. 
B. include reductions in myelination. 
C. include pruning of connections between neurons. 
D. decrease the organization of the brain. 
Answer: 

65.  Unfavorable experiences influence brain development by causing 
A. reduction in brain size. 
B. increased synaptic connections. 
C. increased myelination of cells. 
D. increased numbers of neurons. 
Answer: 

66.  Drianna's mother was very depressed when Drianna was an infant. Drianna did not receive very much stimulation from her mother or from other people. Drianna may experience 
A. delayed development of visual abilities. 
B. difficulties in school. 
C. a sudden brain growth spurt when stimulation begins. 
D. delayed onset of stranger anxiety. 
Answer: 

67.  Which of the following stimuli is strongest to a newborn baby? 
A. the sight of his mother's face 
B. the smell of his mother 
C. the sight of another newborn's face 
D. the sound of his mother's voice 
Answer: 

68.  Studies of newborns' sensory capacities tell us that 
A. their world is a confusing mass of stimulation. 
B. they do not respond to most stimulation. 
C. they can see and hear, but the other senses are not functioning. 
D. their senses are all functioning to some degree. 
Answer: 

69.  Infants more readily track objects that are 
A. high contrast. 
B. small. 
C. fast moving. 
D. blue in color. 
Answer: 

70.  Infants scan objects by 
A. looking at edges and contrasts. 
B. scanning the interiors of objects. 
C. moving their eyes smoothly and systematically. 
D. focusing on bright objects only. 
Answer: 

71.  Infants hear 
A. only very soft sounds. 
B. short duration sounds only. 
C. human voices. 
D. only low-pitched sounds. 
Answer: 

72.  Infants prefer to listen to 
A. animal sounds. 
B. their parents' language. 
C. low-pitched and soft sounds. 
D. rattles. 
Answer: 

73.  Julia, a 10-day-old neonate, was offered several types of formula. Which type of formula is she most likely to prefer? 
A. Julia will prefer formula that tastes bitter because her taste buds are not well developed. 
B. Julia will prefer formula that tastes sour. 
C. Similar to other newborns, Julia will prefer a sweeter formula. 
D. Julia will show no taste preference until she is older. 
Answer: 

74.  A breast-feeding infant is likely to be able to 
A. identify his or her mother by smell. 
B. recognize his or her mother only through touch. 
C. identify his or her father by smell. 
D. recognize his or her father only visually. 
Answer: 

75.  Which of the following is true concerning infants' sensory capabilities? 
A. Infants do not experience pain because they are buffered from it. 
B. Infants do not respond to touch until about 1 month of age. 
C. Infants use warmth as cues for finding food sources. 
D. Full-term infants cannot sweat to cool themselves. 
Answer: 

76.  Tyra, a 1-week-old infant, has to have minor surgery to remove a small growth on her foot. She is likely to 
A. not experience any pain. 
B. experience only minor pain. 
C. be given pain medications. 
D. experience intense pain but will not be given pain medications because of the possibility of complications. 
Answer: 

77.  Children born prior to 37 weeks are considered to be 
A. premature. 
B. of low birthweight. 
C. uncapable of surviving. 
D. fetally deprived. 
Answer: 

78.  A low-birth weight child weighs less than 
A. 10 pounds. 
B. 8.5 pounds. 
C. 7 pounds. 
D. 5.5 pounds. 
Answer: 

79.  The recommended weight at which a newborn can go home after being in intensive care is 
A. 5.5 pounds. 
B. 7 pounds. 
C. 4 pounds. 
D. 3.5 pounds. 
Answer: 

80.  Sudden Infant Death Syndrome strikes nearly ---------- babies in the US each year. 
A. 200 
B. 2,000 
C. 20,000 
D. 200,000 
Answer: