1.  The worldwide project designed to map all human genes is known as the 
A. Human Development Project. 
B. Genetic Transmission Project. 
C. Human Genetics Project. 
D. Human Genome Project. 
Answer: 

2.  The Human Genome Project is one of the largest scientific projects ever funded by the federal government. Its purpose is to 
A. map out the entire structure of human genes. 
B. map out the progress of prenatal development. 
C. determine how genes influence behavior. 
D. prevent diseases. 
Answer: 

3.  ---------- are carried on ----------. 
A. Genes; karyotype. 
B. Chromosomes; genome. 
C. Genes; chromosomes. 
D. Alleles; genes. 
Answer: 

4.  What structures contain the information that guides development? 
A. chromosomes 
B. genes 
C. zygotes 
D. alleles 
Answer: 

5.  Genes 
A. represent one's phenotype. 
B. are composed of chromosomes. 
C. are the actual units of heredity. 
D. exist in pairs of 23. 
Answer: 

6.  The genetic code is made up of a series of ---------- that provide specific information about specific amino acids and proteins. 
A. exons 
B. codons 
C. introns 
D. genomes 
Answer: 

7.  Which of the following is correct? 
A. Humans have 46 chromosomes in each cell except the sperm and ova. 
B. Chromosomes are created by mitosis and genes are created by meiosis. 
C. Humans have thousands of chromosomes per cell. 
D. Genes are smaller versions of chromosomes. 
Answer: 

8.  All cells in the body contain 46 chromosomes except 
A. skin cells. 
B. brain cells. 
C. liver cells. 
D. sperm and ova. 
Answer: 

9.  All cells in the human body have the same number of chromosomes except the ---------- cells. 
A. sex 
B. brain 
C. gene 
D. liver 
Answer: 

10.  How many chromosomes are contained in most cells of a normal human being? 
A. 46 
B. 23 
C. 21 
D. 16 
Answer: 

11.  Most cells multiply through ----------, which involves one duplication of chromosomes and produces an exact duplicate. 
A. meiosis 
B. mitosis 
C. genetic bonding 
D. chromosomal replication 
Answer: 

12.  The process of cell division that creates reproductive cells (sperm, ova) is called 
A. mitosis. 
B. meiosis. 
C. differentiation. 
D. cleavage. 
Answer: 

13.  Chandra has had a picture made by a geneticist of her chromosomal structure. This picture of Chandra's chromosomal make-up is known as a ----------. 
A. karyotype 
B. fertilization analysis 
C. autosome 
D. gamete 
Answer: 

14.  A karyotype is a 
A. chart of the chromosomes within one cell of the individual. 
B. chart of the genes that determines a specific physical trait. 
C. chart of the genes carried on both the X and Y chromosomes. 
D. chart of the genes that controls the development of sex. 
Answer: 

15.  A chromosome that carries information about physical and mental traits but not about sex is called a(n) 
A. allele. 
B. genotype. 
C. karyotype. 
D. autosome. 
Answer: 

16.  Most inherited characteristics are carried on the 22 pairs of chromosomes called 
A. androsperm. 
B. autosomes. 
C. sex chromosomes. 
D. gametes. 
Answer: 

17.  In a normal male 
A. there are two X chromosomes present in the autosomes. 
B. there is an X and Y chromosome present in the autosomes. 
C. there are two X chromosomes in the 23rd pair of chromosomes on the karyotype. 
D. there is an X and a Y chromosome in the 23rd pair of chromosomes on the karyotype. 
Answer: 

18.  A daughter will be created from the union of the parents if 
A. the mother contributes an X chromosome and father contributes an X chromosome. 
B. the father contributes a Y chromosome and mother contributes an X chromosome. 
C. the mother contributes an X chromosome. 
D. the father and mother contribute Y chromosomes. 
Answer: 

19.  In normal females, the sex chromosomes consist of 
A. one X and one Y chromosome. 
B. two Y chromosomes. 
C. two X chromosomes. 
D. two X and two Y chromosomes. 
Answer: 

20.  Linda and Justin are fraternal twins. Linda's genetic configuration is ---------- and Justin's genetic configuration is ----------. 
A. XX; XY 
B. XX; XX 
C. XY; XX 
D. XY; XY 
Answer: 

21.  By looking at a person's physical appearance, one can determine his or her 
A. phenotype. 
B. genotype. 
C. karyotype. 
D. personality. 
Answer: 

22.  A person's hair color is expressed by his or her 
A. genotype. 
B. phenotype. 
C. karyotype. 
D. autosomal type. 
Answer: 

23.  Cindy has blonde hair. She goes to her hairdresser and has her hair dyed red. In this example, Cindy has changed her 
A. genotype. 
B. phenotype. 
C. karyotype. 
D. genome. 
Answer: 

24.  A gene whose code is not expressed unless a similar allele is present is called a(n) 
A. recessive gene. 
B. dominant gene. 
C. allele. 
D. zygote. 
Answer: 

25.  An expressed trait that is the result of the interaction of several sets of genes is referred to as 
A. polygenic. 
B. polyphenic. 
C. polymorphic. 
D. polygamous. 
Answer: 

26.  Most human traits and characteristics are determined by 
A. a single dominant gene. 
B. a pair of recessive genes. 
C. the contribution of many genes. 
D. a single recessive gene. 
Answer: 

27.  Which of the following genetic diseases is transmitted by a single dominant gene? 
A. Huntington's chorea 
B. cystic fibrosis 
C. hemophilia 
D. sickle cell anemia 
Answer: 

28.  Which of the following genetic diseases is an example of sex-linked transmission? 
A. Huntington's chorea 
B. cystic fibrosis 
C. hemophilia 
D. sickle cell anemia 
Answer: 

29.  A male receives his sex-linked traits from his 
A. father. 
B. mother. 
C. grandmother on his father's side of the family. 
D. grandfather on his father's side of the family. 
Answer: 

30.  A heterozygous mother who can pass a recessive gene to her children is 
A. a carrier. 
B. a genome. 
C. a heteropassive risk. 
D. diseased. 
Answer: 

31.  Two parents who are heterozygous for cystic fibrosis have a child with the disease. The child is 
A. heterozygous for the condition. 
B. homozygous for the condition. 
C. immune to cystic fibrosis. 
D. dizygotic for the condition. 
Answer: 

32.  Jennifer's genotype includes one gene for a recessive disease, but Jennifer does not have the disease. Jennifer is 
A. an acrosome. 
B. a dominant allele. 
C. immune to the disease. 
D. a carrier. 
Answer: 

33.  Paul and Katie are both carriers for Tay Sachs' disease. What are the chances that their child will have the disease? 
A. 40% 
B. 50% 
C. 25% 
D. 100% 
Answer: 

34.  Kim and Derick are both carriers for cystic fibrosis. What are the chances that their child will have the disease? 
A. 40% 
B. 50% 
C. 25% 
D. 100% 
Answer: 

35.  Tracy and Grant are both carriers for cystic fibrosis. What are the chances that their child will be a carrier for the disease? 
A. 40% 
B. 50% 
C. 25% 
D. 100% 
Answer: 

36.  At birth, Michelle inherited a gene that reduces her ability to metabolize alcohol. As an adult, she drank heavily and now faces serious liver damage.  This scenarios best describes which of the following? 
A. the human genome 
B. sex linked transmission 
C. a chromosomal abnormality 
D. a gene-environment interaction 
Answer: 

37.  How many chromosomes does a Down syndrome child have? 
A. 46 
B. 47 
C. 48 
D. 49 
Answer: 

38.  Individuals with an extra chromosome in the 21st pair have 
A. Klinefelter's syndrome. 
B. Down syndrome. 
C. Turner's syndrome. 
D. XYY syndrome. 
Answer: 

39.  Jeffrey is a mentally retarded child with widely spaced eyes, a short stature, round folds in the corner of his eyes, and a protruding tongue. Jeffrey most likely has 
A. Down syndrome. 
B. Turner's syndrome. 
C. Tay Sach's disease. 
D. Huntington's chorea. 
Answer: 

40.  About ---------- children are born each year with Down syndrome. 
A. 500 
B. 5,000 
C. 15,000 
D. 50,000 
Answer: 

41.  The incidence of Down syndrome is related to which factor? 
A. the age of the mother 
B. the nutritional status of the mother 
C. how many children a mother has had 
D. the emotional state of the mother 
Answer: 

42.  Nancy is a 40-year-old single woman who is expecting her first baby. Her doctor tells her that she should have a test that detects whether her child will have Down syndrome. The doctor suggested this test probably because 
A. this is Nancy's first child. 
B. of Nancy's age. 
C. all women should be tested for Down syndrome. 
D. of Nancy's martial status. 
Answer: 

43.  The chromosomal make-up of a person with Turner's syndrome is 
A. Y. 
B. XXY. 
C. X. 
D. XYY. 
Answer: 

44.  Peter was born with immature testes and long limbs. He also lacks body or facial hair and has learning disabilities. Peter most likely has 
A. Turner's syndrome. 
B. Klinefelter's syndrome. 
C. XYY syndrome. 
D. Down syndrome. 
Answer: 

45.  Which of the following procedures is NOT to be performed during the first trimester of pregnancy? 
A. chorionic villus sampling 
B. ultrasound 
C. alpha fetoprotein detection 
D. amniocentesis 
Answer: 

46.  Which prenatal monitoring procedure produces visual pictures of the fetus? 
A. amniocentesis 
B. ultrasound 
C. alpha fetoprotein detection 
D. chorionic villus sampling 
Answer: 

47.  Which prenatal monitoring procedure involves the use of sounds waves to detect the location of the fetus? 
A. amniocentesis 
B. ultrasound 
C. alpha fetoprotein detection 
D. x-ray 
Answer: 

48.  Amniocentesis involves 
A. assessing maternal cells for chromosome damage. 
B. assessing maternal blood for abnormal proteins. 
C. assessing fetal cells for genetic problems. 
D. assessing fetal blood for abnormal proteins. 
Answer: 

49.  Which prenatal monitoring procedure involves an examination of a mother's blood? 
A. amniocentesis 
B. ultrasound 
C. alpha fetoprotein detection 
D. chorionic villus sampling 
Answer: 

50.  Which of the following is NOT a reason for seeking genetic counseling? 
A. having a family history of a genetic disorder 
B. being an overweight parent 
C. having a child with a genetic disorder 
D. being an older parent 
Answer: 

51.  Betty and Carlos have a son who has cystic fibrosis. They want to have another child but are concerned about the chances for having another child with cystic fibrosis. Most likely, their family doctor will suggest that Betty and Carlos 
A. not have any more children. 
B. adopt their next child. 
C. seek genetic counseling. 
D. have their next child through artificial insemination. 
Answer: 

52.  The female sex cell is called the 
A. ovum. 
B. zygote. 
C. sperm. 
D. ovary. 
Answer: 

53.  The average length of a woman's menstrual cycle is 
A. 8 days. 
B. 18 days. 
C. 28 days. 
D. 38 days. 
Answer: 

54.  In order, the three phases of the menstrual cycle are 
A. follicular, menstrual, luteal. 
B. menstrual, follicular, luteal. 
C. luteal, follicular, menstrual. 
D. menstrual, luteal, follicular. 
Answer: 

55.  In general, women are most likely to get pregnant 
A. at the beginning of the menstrual cycle. 
B. in the middle of the menstrual cycle. 
C. at the end of the menstrual cycle. 
D. at any point in the menstrual cycle. 
Answer: 

56.  Sperm develop through a process called ----------. 
A. spermatids 
B. spermatozoa 
C. spermatocytes 
D. spermatogenesis 
Answer: 

57.  How often are sperm produced in the testes after puberty? 
A. daily 
B. weekly 
C. monthly 
D. yearly 
Answer: 

58.  Which part of the sperm cell contains the genetic material? 
A. the head 
B. the body 
C. the tail 
D. the synapse 
Answer: 

59.  The ---------- is one of the largest cells in the human body. 
A. ovum 
B. sperm 
C. spermatid 
D. genome 
Answer: 

60.  What happens when an X sperm fertilizes the ovum? 
A. A boy is conceived. 
B. A girl is conceived. 
C. A child with Turner's syndrome is conceived. 
D. A child with Down syndrome is conceived. 
Answer: 

61.  The sex of the offspring will be male or female 
A. depending on the sex chromosome of the mother. 
B. depending on the sex chromosome of the father. 
C. depending on the sex chromosomes of both the mother and father. 
D. independent of the sex chromosomes of the mother and father. 
Answer: 

62.  For centuries, women have been blamed for not producing male offspring. This criticism is unfair because 
A. the sex of the child depends on the father's chromosomes. 
B. mothers and fathers contribute equally to the sex of a child. 
C. neither the mother nor the father contribute to a child's sex. 
D. mothers' and fathers' contribution varies randomly from pregnancy to pregnancy. 
Answer: 

63.  Generally, for fertilization to occur the sperm must reach and penetrate the ovum within ---------- days of ejaculation. 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 
Answer: 

64.  Teresa and Scott have had difficulty conceiving a child. Teresa undergoes a procedure in which an ovum is directly taken from Teresa, fertilized by Scott's sperm in a test tube, and then the fertilized ovum is transferred into Teresa's womb where it grows and develops. This procedure is called 
A. artificial insemination. 
B. gamate intrafallopian transfer 
C. embryo transfer 
D. in vitro fertilization 
Answer: 

65.  The correct sequence of prenatal stages of development is 
A. embryonic; germinal; fetal. 
B. germinal; fetal; germinal. 
C. germinal; embryonic; fetal. 
D. ovum; fetal; embryonic. 
Answer: 

66.  Cell division and differentiation occur during which stage of prenatal development? 
A. germinal stage 
B. fetal stage 
C. embryonic stage 
D. conception 
Answer: 

67.  Fertilization normally occurs within the 
A. vagina. 
B. uterus. 
C. ovaries. 
D. fallopian tubes. 
Answer: 

68.  A(n) ---------- pregnancy occurs when implantation takes place outside of the uterus. 
A. misplaced 
B. ectopic 
C. fallopian 
D. zygotic 
Answer: 

69.  What process triggers hormonal changes that prevent menstruation? 
A. implantation 
B. fertilization 
C. mitosis 
D. penetration of the ovum by the sperm 
Answer: 

70.  Implantation refers to 
A. the deposit of the male's sperm into the body of the female. 
B. the burrowing of the developing organism into the lining of the uterus. 
C. the fertilization of ova by the sperm. 
D. the appearance of the placenta. 
Answer: 

71.  In the United States, twins occur in about 1 in every ---------- pregnancies? 
A. 20 
B. 40 
C. 60 
D. 80 
Answer: 

72.  Multiple pregnancies have increased in the past 30 years because 
A. more women are taking fertility drugs. 
B. of better nutrition. 
C. more younger women are getting pregnant. 
D. of greater exposure to teratogens. 
Answer: 

73.  The major organs of the body are formed during the ---------- stage of prenatal development. 
A. fertilization 
B. germinal 
C. embryonic 
D. fetal 
Answer: 

74.  Which of the following statements about the embryonic stage is NOT true? 
A. It begins at implantation and lasts until 8 weeks. 
B. Major organs and body parts develop. 
C. It is the most critical time in prenatal development. 
D. During this time, only meiosis occurs. 
Answer: 

75.  What structure grows over the embryo and fills with fluid? 
A. the umbilical cord 
B. the placenta 
C. the chorion 
D. the amnion 
Answer: 

76.  The purpose of the amniotic sac and amniotic fluid is to 
A. supply oxygen to the fetus. 
B. exchange fetal waste products. 
C. promote growth and development of the fetus. 
D. provide shock-absorbing protection. 
Answer: 

77.  The placenta 
A. covers and protects the developing fetus. 
B. protects the fetus from the effects of drugs. 
C. delivers oxygen and nourishment to the fetus via the umbilical cord. 
D. filters the blood of the fetus. 
Answer: 

78.  The embryo receives nourishment from the 
A. chorion. 
B. amniotic sac. 
C. placenta. 
D. endoderm. 
Answer: 

79.  Nutrients and waste products are exchanged between the mother and embryo through the 
A. placenta. 
B. umbilical cord. 
C. chorion. 
D. amnion. 
Answer: 

80.  The mesoderm eventually becomes 
A. the skin and nervous system. 
B. the muscles, bones, and circulatory system. 
C. the digestive system and lungs. 
D. the neural tube. 
Answer: 

81.  The brain and spinal cord result from the 
A. mesoderm. 
B. ectoderm. 
C. neuroderm. 
D. exoderm. 
Answer: 

82.  The heart starts to beat during the 
A. germinal period. 
B. fetal period. 
C. embryonic period. 
D. neonatal period. 
Answer: 

83.  Which of the following statements about prenatal development is correct? 
A. Prenatal development occurs beginning with the extremities and moving to the spinal region. 
B. By the end of the second month most of the basic structures are developed. 
C. The age of viability of the fetus is reached at about 5 or 6 months. 
D. The heart and lungs do not develop until the last month of prenatal development. 
Answer: 

84.  The development of the spinal cord before the arms during prenatal development is an example of 
A. proximo distal development. 
B. cephalocaudal development. 
C. differentiation. 
D. integration. 
Answer: 

85.  Which phase of prenatal development lasts the longest? 
A. germinal 
B. embryonic 
C. fetal 
D. conception 
Answer: 

86.  The youngest age at which a fetus can live outside the womb is known as the 
A. quickening. 
B. lightening. 
C. age of conception. 
D. age of viability. 
Answer: 

87.  Anne is in her 16th week of pregnancy. While at work, she feels her baby moving. Anne is experiencing 
A. contractions. 
B. quickening. 
C. the age of viability. 
D. birth. 
Answer: 

88.  Mothers can feel the movements of her developing child around what month? 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 8 
Answer: 

89.  Growth that originates in the head area and proceeds downward is termed 
A. proximodistal. 
B. caudocephalic. 
C. distoproximal. 
D. cephalocaudal. 
Answer: 

90.  Which month of prenatal development marks the age of viability? 
A. fourth 
B. fifth 
C. sixth 
D. seventh 
Answer: 

91.  The seventh month of prenatal development is referred to as the age of viability because 
A. the fetus is large enough to be born. 
B. the fetus could survive on its own if born. 
C. the mother can feel the movements of the fetus. 
D. the heart of the fetus begins to beat. 
Answer: 

92.  The primary change to the fetus during the last trimester is 
A. in the development of basic organs. 
B. in the development of basic sensory systems. 
C. in the development of the muscular system. 
D. in weight and height. 
Answer: 

93.  What percentage of birth defects can be attributed to environmental factors? 
A. 80% 
B. 50% 
C. 10% 
D. 30% 
Answer: 

94.  Agents that cross the placental barrier and damage the developing fetus are called ----------. 
A. damagens 
B. birth defects 
C. placental resistants 
D. teratogens 
Answer: 

95.  A pregnant woman is in a car accident. Which of the following structures will serve to protect the fetus from harm due to the effect of the accident? 
A. the umbilical cord 
B. the placental barrier 
C. the amniotic sac 
D. the chorion 
Answer: 

96.  Mary is a pregnant woman who is stricken with a case of Salmonella (a bacterial infection). Which of the following structures serves to protect the fetus from harm? 
A. the umbilical cord 
B. the placental barrier 
C. the amniotic sac 
D. the chorion 
Answer: 

97.  The effects of a teratogen on the developing fetus is dependent on all of the following EXCEPT 
A. when the teratogen exposure occurs. 
B. the amount of teratogenic exposure. 
C. the phenotype of the mother. 
D. fetal characteristics. 
Answer: 

98.  All of the following are examples of teratogens EXCEPT 
A. alcohol. 
B. HIV. 
C. genetics. 
D. X-rays. 
Answer: 

99.  Teratogens have their greatest effects during the embryonic stage of prenatal development because this is the time when the unborn child is 
A. developing its most basic organs and structures. 
B. almost ready to be born. 
C. not yet connected to the placenta. 
D. fully developed. 
Answer: 

100.  Bonnie is a pregnant woman who began to drink heavily during the embryonic stage of her baby's development. Which of the following is most likely to happen? 
A. She will have a spontaneous abortion. 
B. There will be no effect on the baby. 
C. The central nervous system and the brain will be the most affected. 
D. The most damage will occur to the baby's organs and body parts. 
Answer: 

101.  Maria gave birth to a child with congenital blindness. During her pregnancy Maria experienced mild flu-like symptoms. Maria was never immunized before pregnancy. While in the womb, Maria's child was probably exposed to 
A. rubella. 
B. HIV. 
C. syphilis. 
D. pesticides. 
Answer: 

102.  Most children in the United States who are born with HIV are infected by 
A. drug-addicted mothers. 
B. blood transfusions. 
C. amniocentesis. 
D. radiation. 
Answer: 

103.  In the United States, what percent of women take some type of medication during pregnancy? 
A. 30% 
B. 50% 
C. 70% 
D. 90% 
Answer: 

104.  Approximately how many women in the United States drink alcohol during pregnancy? 
A. 1 million 
B. 5 million 
C. 10 million 
D. 20 million 
Answer: 

105.  Austin is a hyperactive child with retarded physical growth, heart defects, and cognitive deficits. He has a flat face and nose and a narrow head. Austin has 
A. syphilis. 
B. rubella. 
C. AIDS. 
D. fetal alcohol syndrome. 
Answer: 

106.  Children of alcoholic mothers are shorter and lighter than average, have heart and cranial defects, and have cognitive deficits. This pattern of characteristics is called the 
A. fetal alcohol syndrome. 
B. fetal alcohol effect. 
C. alcoholic abuse effect. 
D. placental barrage syndrome. 
Answer: 

107.  The most serious and consistent feature of fetal alcohol syndrome is 
A. cranial defects. 
B. hyperactivity. 
C. growth retardation. 
D. mental retardation. 
Answer: 

108.  A less severe spectrum of damage done by mothers who drink moderate amounts of alcohol is called the 
A. fetal alcohol syndrome. 
B. fetal alcohol effect. 
C. alcoholic abuse effect. 
D. placental barrage syndrome. 
Answer: 

109.  Cigarette smoking during pregnancy has been shown to 
A. increase spontaneous abortions and retard prenatal growth. 
B. cause severe mental retardation. 
C. only affect children born to older mothers. 
D. have no known effects on prenatal development. 
Answer: 

110.  The effects of cigarette smoking on prenatal development are 
A. unproven. 
B. dosage related. 
C. always fatal. 
D. permanent and long-term. 
Answer: 

111.  Which of the following supports the belief that the deficits that children born to mothers who used cocaine during pregnancy experience depend on the family environment? 
A. Mothers who use cocaine are more likely to be abusive. 
B. Mothers who use cocaine are less healthy. 
C. Mothers who use cocaine have more children. 
D. Mothers who use cocaine are mentally retarded. 
Answer: 

112.  Trina is pregnant and uses heroin regularly during her pregnancy. When her child Angela is born, Angela is likely to be 
A. normal. 
B. mentally retarded. 
C. physically malformed, particularly in the facial area. 
D. addicted to heroin. 
Answer: 

113.  The effects of drug use by mothers during pregnancy on children are difficult to specify because 
A. these mothers and children are difficult to study. 
B. there really are no effects. 
C. it is difficult to disentangle drug effects from the environments children are raised in. 
D. mothers are addicted to the drugs. 
Answer: 

114.  Which of the following statements about the effects of X-rays on prenatal development is true? 
A. There are no known effects. 
B. The effects depend on the amount of radiation and when it is received. 
C. Low dosage X-rays do not harm a developing fetus. 
D. Even a single exposure to a low-dose X-ray causes serious damage. 
Answer: 

115.  Given the number of possible teratogens and the possible damage they do, 
A. there is no point in parents trying to be careful. 
B. it is surprising that so many children are born healthy. 
C. if a mother gives birth to a child with a birth defect, she should not have another child. 
D. couples should not have children. 
Answer: 

116.  Birth rates for women over 30 have been increasing for which group of women? 
A. Caucasian American women 
B. African American women 
C. Hispanic women 
D. uneducated women 
Answer: 

117.  Which of the following statements is true about older mothers having children? 
A. There are no known risks associated with age. 
B. The effects depend on how fathers react to the pregnancy. 
C. When risk factors are eliminated, the chances of delivering a healthy newborn are as good as for younger mothers. 
D. Older women should not have children. 
Answer: 

118.  ---------- refers to the number and spacing of children a woman bears. 
A. Parity 
B. Parsimony 
C. Legitimacy 
D. Child patterning 
Answer: 

119.  After giving birth to one child, how much time is ideal to wait before having another child? 
A. 6 months 
B. 1 year 
C. 2 years 
D. 4 years 
Answer: 

120.  Ideally, women of average weight should gain ---------- pounds during pregnancy. 
A. 20 
B. 25 
C. 30 
D. 35 
Answer: 

121.  The fact that responses to pregnancy vary from culture to culture tell us that pregnancy is 
A. entirely a biological event. 
B. mostly a biological condition. 
C. a biological condition that is interpreted through the values of one's culture. 
D. entirely a cultural event. 
Answer: 

122.  Couvade refers to 
A. a father's tendency to identify with his pregnant mate. 
B. a father's tendency to avoid his pregnant mate. 
C. a mother's tendency to identify with the father. 
D. a mother's tendency to deny her pregnancy. 
Answer: