1. The study of how people change physically, mentally, and socially throughout the lifespan is called: 
A. cognitive psychology. 
B. humanistic psychology. 
C. developmental psychology. 
D. comparative psychology.
Answer: C 
2. Kyle is studying how language abilities change throughout childhood, and Kelly is studying cognitive changes in late adulthood. Both Kyle and Kelly are conducting studies in which area of psychology? 
A. clinical psychology 
B. humanistic psychology 
C. comparative psychology 
D. developmental psychology
Answer: D 
3. Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into: 
A. four emotional stages of development and six physical stages of development. 
B. genetic and environmental phases of development. 
C. continuous and abrupt aspects of development. 
D. eight age-related stages of development.
Answer: D 
4. Which best characterizes the typical course of human development? 
A. Development occurs in distinct stages that are characterized by abrupt changes in physical, mental, and social growth. 
B. Gradual, unfolding changes throughout the ages and stages of life characterize development. 
C. Development is viewed as occurring in four distinct stages: infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood. 
D. Biological factors cause environmental factors to shape the course of development.
Answer: B 
5. Which of the following statements best represents contemporary thinking on the nature/nurture issue? 
A. Environmental factors can determine the expression of genetic potential, but only during infancy. 
B. The relationship between genetics and environment is interactive; each influences the other. 
C. While genetic factors determine personality, environmental factors determine intelligence and cognitive ability. 
D. Genetic factors alone determine physical appearance, including height and weight, but only environmental factors influence personality characteristics.
Answer: B 
6. At the moment you were conceived, each parent contributed: 
A. 23 chromosomes. 
B. 23 pairs of chromosomes. 
C. 23 genes. 
D. 23 pairs of genes.
Answer: A 
7. Your unique genetic blueprint: 
A. has changed dramatically as you have progressed through the various ages and stages of the lifespan. 
B. is found in the chromosomes of every cell in your body. 
C. is comprised of 23 pairs of genes. 
D. is comprised of 23 genes.
Answer: B 
8. Each human chromosome contains: 
A. 1 gene. 
B. 23 genes. 
C. 23 pairs of genes. 
D. thousands of genes.
Answer: D 
9. Which of the following statements BEST defines a chromosome? 
A. a unit of DNA instructions 
B. the chemical genetic code that is the basis of heredity 
C. a long, threadlike structure composed of DNA 
D. the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism
Answer: C 
10. Which of the following BEST defines deoxyribonucleic acid? 
A. the chemical genetic code that is the basis of heredity 
B. a harmful environmental substance that can potentially produce defects in the developing embryo or fetus 
C. the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism 
D. the fluid that surrounds the developing embryo or fetus
Answer: A 
11. Which of the following BEST defines a gene? 
A. the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism 
B. a unit of DNA instructions that directs the development of a particular characteristic 
C. a harmful environmental substance that can potentially produce defects in the developing embryo or fetus 
D. the first two weeks of prenatal development
Answer: B 
12. The term genotype refers to: 
A. a recessive gene that is found only on the X chromosome. 
B. the underlying genetic makeup of an organism. 
C. a computer-enhanced image of the genes found embedded in a single chromosome. 
D. a category of living organisms that are genetically related.
Answer: B 
13. The term phenotype refers to: 
A. a dominant gene found only on the X chromosome. 
B. a computer-enhanced image of the chromosomal makeup of a single organism. 
C. The observable characteristics of an organism as determined by the interaction of genetic and environmental factors. 
D. The complete set of genes that an organism has inherited.
Answer: C 
14. Phenotype is to genotype as: 
A. inherited genes are to expressed characteristics. 
B. expressed characteristics are to inherited genes. 
C. recessive traits are to dominant traits. 
D. dominant traits are to recessive traits.
Answer: B 
15. From her biological mother, Summer received the gene for naturally curly hair, which is a dominant characteristic. From her biological father, Summer received the gene for naturally straight hair, which is a recessive characteristic. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. Because her genotype contains conflicting information, Summer will have naturally straight hair. 
B. Even though her genotype contains conflicting information, Summer's phenotype will be naturally curly hair. 
C. Although her genotype predicts naturally curly hair, Summer's phenotype will be naturally straight hair. 
D. It is impossible to predict if Summer will have naturally curly or straight hair.
Answer: B 
16. Having dimples is a dominant characteristic determined by a single pair of genes. Andrew has dimples. Which of the following statements is FALSE? 
A. Andrew's genotype could be a dimples/no dimples combination. 
B. Andrew's genotype could be a dimples/dimples combination. 
C. Andrew's genotype could be a no dimples/no dimples combination. 
D. Even if Andrew has a mixed genotype, Andrew's phenotype will express the dominant characteristic.
Answer: C 
17. Robin has flat feet, which is a recessive characteristic determined by a single pair of genes. Having feet with normal arches is a dominant characteristic. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. Robin's genotype could be a normal arches/flat feet combination. 
B. Robin's biological mother or her biological father contributed the gene for normal arches, but not both of them. 
C. Robin's genotype is different from her phenotype. 
D. Robin received the gene for flat feet from both her biological mother and her biological father.
Answer: D 
18. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. In order for the genetic instructions of a recessive gene to be expressed, it must be paired with an identical recessive gene. 
B. The phenotype is the underlying genetic makeup of a particular individual. 
C. It only takes one recessive gene for a female to have a sex-linked recessive characteristic. 
D. In order for a dominant characteristic to be displayed, both members of the gene pair must be dominant genes.
Answer: A 
19. A male has an _____ combination in the _____. 
A. XX; 1st pair of genes 
B. XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes 
C. XY; 1st pair of chromosomes 
D. XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes
Answer: D 
20. A female has an _____ combination in the _____. 
A. XX; 1st pair of genes 
B. XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes 
C. XY; 1st pair of chromosomes 
D. XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes
Answer: B 
21. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive characteristic. This means that red-green color blindness: 
A. is a sexually transmitted disease (STD). 
B. is a trait determined by the recessive genes on X chromosomes. 
C. only requires the presence of one recessive gene in order for the trait to be displayed in women. 
D. requires the presence of two recessive genes in order for the trait to be displayed in men or women.
Answer: B 
22. Ellen and her brother, Keith, both have red-green color blindness, which is a sex-linked recessive characteristic. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. Ellen has the recessive gene for red-green color blindness on her X chromosome but not on her Y chromosome. 
B. Keith has the recessive gene for red-green color blindness on each of his X chromosomes. 
C. Ellen has the recessive gene for red-green color blindness on each of her X chromosomes. 
D. It is genetically impossible for both Ellen and Keith to have red-green color blindness.
Answer: C 
23. Sex-linked recessive characteristics: 
A. are more likely to be displayed in females. 
B. are communicated on the 21st pair of chromosomes. 
C. only affect males. 
D. include hemophilia and congenital night blindness.
Answer: D 
24. Which of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development? 
A. embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period 
B. fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period 
C. germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period 
D. germinal period, zygotic period, fetal period
Answer: C 
25. At the moment of conception, each person begins life as a single cell, which is called: 
A. an embryo. 
B. a fetus. 
C. a placenta. 
D. a zygote.
Answer: D 
26. During the germinal period: 
A. the zygote becomes implanted on the mother's uterine wall. 
B. the pregnant woman is highly susceptible to colds and infections. 
C. the mother can feel the fetus moving. 
D. all of the organs and the major body systems have formed.
Answer: A 
27. Shannon is in the seventh week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Shannon's pregnancy is in the _____ period. 
A. zygotic 
B. embryonic 
C. germinal 
D. fetal
Answer: B 
28. During the embryonic period, the: 
A. mother can feel the fetus moving. 
B. fetus gains an additional three to four pounds of body fat. 
C. organs and major systems of the body form. 
D. zygote undergoes rapid cell division.
Answer: C 
29. Which of the following is TRUE of the placenta? 
A. It is the fluid-filled sac that houses the developing embryo and fetus. 
B. It forms during the seventh month of prenatal development. 
C. It is fully developed about six months after birth. 
D. It prevents the mother's blood from mixing with the blood of the developing embryo and fetus.
Answer: D 
30. As a general rule, the greatest vulnerability to _____ occurs during the _____ period of prenatal development. 
A. teratogens; embryonic 
B. quickening; embryonic 
C. amniocentesis; germinal 
D. teratogens; germinal
Answer: A 
31. A teratogen is: 
A. a specific type of genetic mutation which typically results in severe birth defects. 
B. a harmful agent, such as a chemical, drug, or disease, that can cause malformations or defects in an embryo or fetus. 
C. a segment of DNA that is found on both the X and Y chromosome and which commonly results in mental retardation. 
D. a recessive gene which is usually found only on the Y chromosome and which causes hemophilia or other related blood disorders in males.
Answer: B 
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the teratogens listed in your textbook? 
A. radiation exposure 
B. AIDS 
C. alcohol 
D. deoxyribonucleic acid
Answer: D 
33. Elizabeth is in the fifteenth week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Elizabeth's pregnancy is in the _____ period. 
A. fetal 
B. germinal 
C. embryonic 
D. zygotic
Answer: A 
34. When does a fetus double in weight, gaining an additional three to four pounds of body fat? 
A. during the last two months of the fetal period 
B. during the third and fourth months of the germinal period 
C. during the first two months following conception 
D. during the first two months after the baby has been born
Answer: A 
35. Of the following senses, which is LEAST developed at birth? 
A. vision 
B. smell 
C. touch 
D. hearing
Answer: A 
36. The newly born infant: 
A. is capable of a variety of voluntary behaviors, including rolling over. 
B. is able to see near objects more clearly than distant objects. 
C. is unable to distinguish between different voices. 
D. has no sense of smell.
Answer: B 
37. Janeen touches her newborn's cheek. Her baby turns toward Janeen's hand and opens her mouth. Janeen has triggered which reflex? 
A. the sucking reflex 
B. the Moro reflex 
C. the rooting reflex 
D. the grasping reflex
Answer: C 
38. When you put your finger on your newborn nephew's palm, he curls his own fingers around yours, grasping your finger tightly. You have triggered what sort of behavior? 
A. the grasping reflex 
B. the rooting reflex 
C. the Moro reflex 
D. a newborn's inborn preference to seek human contact
Answer: A 
39. Touching a newborn's lips evokes the _____ reflex. 
A. grasping 
B. sucking 
C. rooting 
D. stepping
Answer: B 
40. The rooting, sucking, and grasping reflexes: 
A. become stronger and more pronounced during the first six months of life. 
B. gradually disappear over the first year of life and are replaced by voluntary behaviors. 
C. disappear within the first month of life. 
D. first appear at about three months of age.
Answer: B 
41. The newborn's senses are most keenly attuned to what sort of stimuli? 
A. brightly colored objects, especially moving objects 
B. people, especially faces 
C. food, especially milk 
D. loud sounds, especially sounds that seem threatening
Answer: B 
42. Although Baby Emma was only a few hours old, she would turn her head to visually follow which sort of moving stimulus? 
A. a red ball 
B. a black-and-white mobile 
C. a human face 
D. a green block
Answer: C 
43. At birth, an infant can distinguish between his mother's _____ and that of another woman. 
A. face 
B. voice 
C. heartbeat 
D. hair
Answer: B 
44. If Claudia wishes to make sure that her newborn infant can see her face as clearly as possible, Claudia should position her face so that she is about _____ away from her newborn's face. 
A. six to twelve inches 
B. two to five inches 
C. twelve to eighteen inches 
D. three to five feet
Answer: A 
45. At birth, newborns enter the world with an estimated _____ neurons. 
A. 1 hundred 
B. 100 thousand 
C. 1 million 
D. 100 billion
Answer: D 
46. Jose has just been born. Which of the following accurately describes how his brain will develop over the next two years? 
A. The number of axons will increase dramatically. 
B. The amount of myelin will decrease dramatically. 
C. The number of neurons will decrease dramatically. 
D. The number of dendrites will increase dramatically.
Answer: D 
47. The basic sequence of motor skill development in infancy: 
A. varies from one infant to another. 
B. varies from one culture to another. 
C. is generally the same for all infants. 
D. cannot be reliably predicted.
Answer: C 
48. Connor and Mandy are two unrelated 13-month-old infants. Connor can already walk easily, but Mandy has yet to take her first steps. What is the most likely explanation for the difference between their ability levels? 
A. Connor is brighter than Mandy, since he is progressing through the stages of development more rapidly. 
B. Mandy and Connor are both well within the normal age range for the development of these motor skills. 
C. Connor's mother has taught him to walk, and Mandy's mother has not. 
D. Mandy's inability to walk at 13 months is abnormal, and may indicate the presence of other developmental problems.
Answer: B 
49. You can safely predict that Lauren, your friend's new baby, will: 
A. walk easily by 11 months of age. 
B. be able to sit without support before she will be able to roll over. 
C. be able to roll over before she will be able to sit without support. 
D. begin walking at exactly the same age as her older brother did.
Answer: C 
50. Which of the following is the term used by psychologists to describe an infant's inborn predisposition to behave and react in a particular way? 
A. temperament 
B. personal style 
C. attachment style 
D. reactivity or reaction style
Answer: A 
51. Ever since she was a few weeks old, Shelly has been an unusually contented baby who slept and ate well and adapted easily to new experiences. A developmental psychologist would probably describe Shelly's temperament as being: 
A. slow-to-warm-up. 
B. difficult. 
C. easy. 
D. above average.
Answer: C 
52. Although he is more than a year old, Jason wakes up frequently during the night and is hard to soothe back to sleep. In general, he cries easily, is a fussy eater, and rarely naps at the same time every day. Jason would most likely be categorized as: 
A. slow-to-warm-up. 
B. difficult. 
C. easy. 
D. securely attached.
Answer: B 
53. Teresa is a quiet child who has never been very active. She is good-natured and calm as long as her circumstances are familiar, but she is easily upset by changes in her environment. It takes her a long time to adapt to new food, new people, or new surroundings. Teresa's temperament would probably be categorized as: 
A. slow-to-warm-up. 
B. difficult. 
C. easy. 
D. below average.
Answer: A 
54. About _____ of babies cannot be categorized as either easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm-up because they do not fit neatly into any of these categories. 
A. one percent 
B. one-third 
C. three-quarters 
D. one-tenth
Answer: B 
55. According to research conducted by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, temperamental patterns: 
A. are likely to change when children start school. 
B. are remarkably stable throughout childhood. 
C. typically change at age 2 and again at age 6. 
D. vary on a daily basis throughout infancy and childhood.
Answer: B 
56. Temperament researchers agree that individual differences in temperament have a genetic and biological basis. Researchers also agree that: 
A. a child's basic temperament is set for life by the age of 6 months. 
B. a child's basic temperament is mostly determined by his environment and upbringing. 
C. environmental experiences can modify a child's basic temperament. 
D. because temperament has a genetic basis, it cannot be changed.
Answer: C 
57. The term used by psychologists to describe and measure the emotional bond between an infant and his or her caregiver is called: 
A. temperament. 
B. attachment. 
C. cohesion. 
D. separation anxiety.
Answer: B 
58. According to attachment theory: 
A. the quality of attachment plays an important role in determining an infant's ability to thrive physically and psychologically. 
B. attachment can be formed only between the infant and his or her mother. 
C. the infant can form multiple attachment relationships, but only the mother-infant relationship is important. 
D. while the attachment bond is important to psychological development, it has no effect on the infant's physical development.
Answer: A 
59. In homes where both parents are present and have a close relationship to their infant, the infant tends to: 
A. develop an attachment relationship to his mother but not his father. 
B. develop an attachment relationship to his father, but not his mother. 
C. develop an attachment relationship to both parents at about the same time. 
D. develop an attachment relationship to one parent or the other, but not both.
Answer: C 
60. One-year-old Brendan has a loving, close relationship with his mother, his father, and his grandmother, who cares for him during the day while his parents work outside the home. Brendan is likely to have formed an attachment relationship with: 
A. his mother and grandmother, but not his father. 
B. his mother and father, but not his grandmother. 
C. his mother, father, and grandmother. 
D. his mother, but not his father or grandmother.
Answer: C 
61. Surveys of family sleeping arrangements in more than a 100 cultures around the world revealed that infants customarily slept in the same room or bed as their mothers in: 
A. the vast majority of cultures, but not in the United States. 
B. the United States, but not in most other cultures. 
C. only a small minority of cultures. 
D. only the Mayan villages of Guatemala.
Answer: A 
62. The U.S. custom of putting young infants to sleep in a separate room from their parents seems to reflect which cultural values? 
A. the importance of interdependence 
B. the importance of self-reliance and independence 
C. the importance of the parents' sexual relationship 
D. the importance of the sale of cribs, baby blankets, and stuffed toys to the U.S. economy
Answer: B 
63. When parents are consistently warm and responsive to their infant, the infant is likely to develop a(n) _____ attachment to the parents; when parents neglect the infant, are inconsistent, or insensitive to the infant's needs, the infant is likely to develop a(n) _____ attachment to the parents. 
A. easy; difficult 
B. tight; loose 
C. collectivistic; individualistic 
D. secure; insecure
Answer: D 
64. The technique most commonly used to measure attachment in early childhood was developed by which psychologist? 
A. Mary D. Salter Ainsworth 
B. Jean Piaget 
C. Stella Chess 
D. Diana Baumrind
Answer: A 
65. Dr. Gutierrez is a developmental psychologist who wishes to measure the quality of attachment between a group of 2-year-olds and their mothers. What technique is she likely to use? 
A. the Attachment Interview 
B. the Strange Situation Procedure 
C. the Separation Anxiety Scale 
D. the Object Permanence Task
Answer: B 
66. Marie enters the playroom of the psychology lab with her 1-year-old son Aaron. Aaron ignores the many attractive toys in the room and clings to his mother. Marie leaves the room, and Aaron begins to cry hysterically. When his mother returns and tries to comfort him, Aaron cries harder, kicks, and resists her efforts to hold him. Aaron would most likely be classified as: 
A. securely attached. 
B. difficult and slow-to-warm-up. 
C. insecurely attached. 
D. uninhibited.
Answer: C 
67. Janeen enters the playroom of the psychology lab with her 1-year-old daughter Peggy. Initially, Peggy clings to her mother, but then becomes interested in the attractive toys in the playroom. She picks up a toy and brings it back to her mother, then drops it and approaches the toy box again. Peggy cries when Janeen leaves the room, but quickly calms down again when her mother returns. Peggy would most likely be classified as: 
A. securely attached. 
B. difficult and slow-to-warm-up. 
C. insecurely attached. 
D. inhibited.
Answer: A 
68. John is a 3-year-old with a history of secure attachment to his mother and father. According to the research on the long-term effects of attachment, what can be predicted about John's later development? 
A. John is likely to have academic and social problems as an adolescent. 
B. John is likely to have difficulty getting along with other children in preschool because he is so self-centered. 
C. John is likely to be socially competent both as a preschooler and as an adolescent. 
D. No conclusions can be drawn, because there is no evidence to support the belief that quality of attachment in infancy has any long-term effects.
Answer: C 
69. Studies that compared attachment in infants who attended day care with attachment in infants who were cared for by a parent at home showed that: 
A. most of the infants in both groups were securely attached. 
B. most of the infants in day care were insecurely attached. 
C. the proportion of infants in day care who were insecurely attached was four times that of infants who were cared for by a parent at home. 
D. infants in day care were securely attached to their caregivers at the day care facility but were not attached to their parents.
Answer: A 
70. Psychological research has shown that the MOST important factor in determining whether day care will have negative effects on children in later life is: 
A. the age at which the child entered day care. 
B. the number of hours of day care experienced per week. 
C. the quality of the day care experienced. 
D. whether day care was in a day care facility or in a private home.
Answer: C 
71. Linda is trying to select a high-quality day care center for her 2-year-old daughter. Which of the following day care characteristics is NOT associated with high-quality care? 
A. A low caregiver-to-child ratio should exist, in which two adults care for no more than fourteen toddlers. 
B. A variety of toys and other developmentally appropriate activities should be readily available. 
C. The caregivers should be warm, responsive, and well trained. 
D. Caregivers should be frequently reassigned to different groups of children, so that children do not become overly attached to a particular caregiver.
Answer: D 
72. According to _____, children are born with the predisposition to learn the rules of grammar and the common principles of any language. 
A. Jean Piaget 
B. Noam Chomsky 
C. Renee Baillargeon 
D. Lev Vygotsky
Answer: B 
73. Before they are 10 months of age, infants can distinguish among speech sounds: 
A. from any spoken language, whether they have been exposed to it or not. 
B. only from languages to which they have been exposed. 
C. that are formed by combinations of consonants but not vowels. 
D. that are formed by combinations of vowels but not consonants.
Answer: A 
74. Nobuaki is being raised by his grandmother, who speaks only Japanese in his presence. At 6 months of age, Nobuaki can distinguish between the English sounds of "r" (as in "row") and "l" (as in "low"), which are not present in the Japanese spoken by his grandmother. Which of the following statements will be true of Nobuaki when he is 16 months old? 
A. He will still be able to distinguish between the sounds of "r" and "l." 
B. He will no longer be able to distinguish between the sounds of "r" and "l"; "rhyme" and "lime" will sound exactly the same to him. 
C. He will be able to distinguish between "r" and "l," but not "d" and "th"; "den" and "then" will sound the same to him. 
D. He will be able to distinguish among all the sounds of any language.
Answer: B 
75. When Diana talks to her baby, she uses simple words and short sentences, a high-pitched voice, and exaggerated intonations and facial expressions. Diana is using a form of speech that is formally called: 
A. telegraphic speech. 
B. infant-directed speech, or motherese. 
C. cooing and babbling. 
D. one-word stage.
Answer: B 
76. The fact that infant-directed speech is used by parents in every culture when they speak to infants and toddlers is cited as evidence for the conclusion that: 
A. parents understand that children's production vocabulary is larger than their comprehension vocabulary. 
B. parents tend to underestimate the cognitive abilities of their infant children. 
C. infants and toddlers would learn to talk sooner if parents spoke in a normal adult conversational style. 
D. parents are naturally predisposed to encourage language development in their infant children.
Answer: D 
77. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of language development from birth to about age 2? 
A. cooing, babbling, one-word stage, two-word stage 
B. babbling, cooing, two-word stage, four-word stage 
C. production, comprehension, one-word stage 
D. consonants, vowels, babbling, two-word stage
Answer: A 
78. Matt is awaiting his baby's first words. Matt can expect his baby to say his first word when the baby is about how old? 
A. around 2 years old 
B. around 6 months old 
C. around 3 months old 
D. around 12 months old
Answer: D 
79. _____ vocabulary is to understanding as _____ vocabulary is to speaking. 
A. Production; comprehension 
B. One-word; two-word 
C. Comprehension; production 
D. Primary; secondary
Answer: C 
80. An infant's _____ vocabulary develops faster than his _____ vocabulary. 
A. production; comprehension 
B. comprehension; production 
C. one-word; two-word 
D. expressive; descriptive
Answer: B 
81. Fourteen-month-old Adrian can say "bye-bye," "mama," "da-da," and "doggie." You can safely conclude that: 
A. Adrian cannot distinguish between friendly and angry talking. 
B. Adrian cannot respond to a simple command, such as "Give mama the ball." 
C. Adrian understands many more words than he can speak. 
D. Adrian understands the difference between "in" and "under."
Answer: C 
82. Jonathan is a normal toddler who has just celebrated his second birthday. Jonathan's parents can reasonably expect that he will shortly enter which stage of language development? 
A. the one-word stage 
B. the two-word stage 
C. the complex sentence stage 
D. the syntax stage
Answer: B 
83. By the age of 3 years, the typical child has a _____ vocabulary of about 3,000 words and is acquiring about a dozen new words a(n) _____. 
A. comprehension; week 
B. production; month 
C. comprehension; hour 
D. production; day
Answer: D 
84. The Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget is best known for his: 
A. studies of the newborn's visual preferences. 
B. research investigating the development of moral reasoning. 
C. theory proposing that children progress through distinct stages of cognitive development. 
D. influential theory of psychosocial development throughout the lifespan.
Answer: C 
85. Piaget believed that each child: 
A. is shaped solely by environmental and social experiences. 
B. actively tries to make sense of his or her environment. 
C. progresses through a series of eight stages of psychosocial development. 
D. is biologically programmed to learn any language.
Answer: B 
86. Which of the following represents the correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? 
A. sensorimotor, concrete operations, preoperational, formal operations 
B. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations 
C. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations 
D. concrete operations, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operations
Answer: C 
87. As Tim was swinging his toy hammer, the hammer flew out of his hand and landed behind the couch and out of view. Rather than look for it, Tim acted as though the hammer no longer existed. Tim's behavior suggests that he is in the _____ of cognitive development. 
A. preoperational stage 
B. concrete operational stage 
C. conventional stage 
D. sensorimotor stage
Answer: D 
88. Vicki was sitting in the rocking chair and playing with her doll. She dropped the doll, which landed out of view behind the rocking chair. A few moments later, Vicki climbed down and retrieved the doll. Vicki's behavior suggests that she has acquired the cognitive understanding of _____. 
A. object permanence 
B. abstract reasoning 
C. egocentrism 
D. conservation
Answer: A 
89. During the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development: 
A. the child becomes adept at using words, images, and symbols to represent the world. 
B. infants and toddlers rely on their sensory and motor skills to acquire practical knowledge about the world. 
C. the child acquires the principle of conservation. 
D. the child uses logic to systematically solve problems.
Answer: B 
90. In Piaget's theory, a schema is: 
A. the understanding that two equal quantities remain equal even if the form or appearance is rearranged. 
B. the inability to take another person's perspective or point of view. 
C. a mental representation of the world. 
D. the ability to simultaneously focus on two or more aspects of a problem.
Answer: C 
91. On a rainy afternoon, 5-year-old Jonathan had great fun building a fort using the cushions from the couch and several kitchen chairs. Jonathan's imaginary play reflects his capacity for _____, which is a characteristic of the _____ stage of cognitive development. 
A. object permanence; preoperational 
B. abstract reasoning; concrete operational 
C. conservation; preoperational 
D. symbolic thought; preoperational
Answer: D 
92. Which of the following illustrates egocentrism? 
A. When presented with two rows of six pennies, the child thinks that the row of pennies spaced further apart has more than the other row. 
B. While talking on the phone, a little boy holds up four fingers in response to being asked how old he is. 
C. Shown two equal balls of clay, the child correctly says that each ball still has the same amount even when one ball of clay is rolled out in a sausage shape. 
D. The child creates a "treasure chest" from an old shoe box.
Answer: B 
93. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the thinking of the child in the preoperational stage of cognitive development? 
A. the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation 
B. the ability to reverse mental operations 
C. the ability to use words and symbols to represent the world 
D. the inability to take another person's perspective or point of view
Answer: B 
94. In Piaget's theory, the term centration refers to: 
A. the tendency to take another person's point of view. 
B. the tendency to consider yourself the "center" of a given situation, ignoring other people's roles in the situation. 
C. the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation, ignoring other aspects of the situation that may also be relevant. 
D. the tendency to engage in symbolic play.
Answer: C 
95. In Piaget's theory, the term irreversibility refers to: 
A. the ability to reverse mental operations. 
B. the inability to reverse mental operations. 
C. the inability to focus on all relevant aspects of a situation. 
D. the ability to comprehend that some actions cannot be undone.
Answer: B 
96. Your textbook describes the classic "conservation task" in which a 5-year-old child observes equal amounts of liquid in two identical short, wide containers. The child watches as liquid is poured from one short, wide container into a tall, thin container, and is then asked which container holds more water. How does a typical 5-year-old respond? 
A. "The tall, thin container has more water." 
B. "The short, wide container has more water." 
C. "Both containers have the same amount of water." 
D. "I have to go to the bathroom."
Answer: A 
97. Most five-year-olds cannot correctly solve the classic "conservation task" involving equal amounts of water in different-sized containers because their thinking is characterized by: 
A. egocentrism and reversibility. 
B. object permanence and formal operations. 
C. irreversibility and centration. 
D. logic and symbolic thought.
Answer: C 
98. The classic "conservation task" developed by Piaget involves two short containers that contain equal amounts of liquid. While a child watches, the water from one container is poured into a tall, thin beaker, and the child is asked which beaker holds more water, the short container or the tall container. Four-year-old Daniel answers the question incorrectly, while seven-year-old Emily is able to answer the question correctly. Why? 
A. Daniel is in the preoperational stage, while Emily is in the concrete operational stage. 
B. Girls progress through the stages of cognitive development earlier and faster than boys do. 
C. Emily is in the formal operational stage, and Daniel is in the concrete operational stage. 
D. Daniel is in the sensorimotor stage, and Emily is in the preoperational stage.
Answer: A 
99. In Piaget's theory, when a child demonstrates conservation, he or she: 
A. understands the importance of protecting environmental resources. 
B. becomes aware of cultural differences. 
C. recognizes that two equal quantities remain equal, even if the appearance of one is changed, as long as nothing is added or subtracted. 
D. is limited by the inability to reverse mental operations and the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation.
Answer: C 
100. Mark was upset because he only got half a sandwich while his older sister got two halves of a sandwich. After his mother cut his half sandwich into two pieces, Mark was perfectly happy. Mark is probably in the _____ stage of cognitive development. 
A. sensorimotor 
B. preoperational 
C. concrete operational 
D. formal operational
Answer: B 
101. Which of the following would characterize a child who is in the concrete operational stage of cognitive development? 
A. The child tends to focus on only one aspect of a situation, such as the height but the not the width of the liquid in two containers. 
B. The child is able to think logically and systematically even when dealing with abstract concepts. 
C. The child can only use basic sensory and motor abilities to understand the world. 
D. The child's use of logic tends to be limited to tangible events or objects.
Answer: D 
102. Amy is most likely in the _____ stage of cognitive development. 
A. sensorimotor 
B. preoperational 
C. concrete operational 
D. formal operational
Answer: C 
103. Which of the following would characterize a child who is in the formal operational stage of cognitive development? 
A. The child is able to think logically and systematically even when dealing with abstract concepts. 
B. The child tends to focus on only one aspect of situation, such as the height but not the width of the liquid in two containers. 
C. The child uses basic sensory and motor abilities to understand the world. 
D. The child's use of logic tends to be limited to tangible events or objects.
Answer: A 
104. During which stage of development does formal operational thinking typically begin to emerge? 
A. early adulthood 
B. early adolescence 
C. about ages 3 to 5 
D. about ages 5 to 7
Answer: B 
105. Psychologist RenŽe Baillargeon found that three-and-a-half-month-old infants were surprised when they watched a carrot pass behind a screen but fail to appear in a window in the screen. According to Baillargeon, this suggests that infants understand _____ at a much earlier age than Piaget suggested. 
A. conservation 
B. object permanence 
C. centration 
D. symbolic thought
Answer: B 
106. Research by psychologist RenŽe Baillargeon suggests that infants achieve an understanding of object permanence much earlier than Piaget's theory states.  Why did Piaget underestimate the cognitive abilities of very young infants? 
A. Piaget did not take cultural influences into account in developing his theory. 
B. Piaget confused emotional immaturity with cognitive immaturity. 
C. Piaget confused motor skill limitations with cognitive limitations. 
D. Piaget lacked access to the brain-imaging technology that Baillargeon and other contemporary psychologists have used to measure cognitive abilities in very young infants.
Answer: C 
107. According to the discussion in the text, Piaget's notion that his stages of cognitive development are universal has been challenged by the finding that: 
A. some adults never display the characteristics of formal operational thinking. 
B. children in many cultures do not display the characteristics of preoperational thinking. 
C. most adolescents are unable to respond correctly to conservation tasks. 
D. few people display the characteristics of concrete operational thinking.
Answer: A 
108. The chapter discussion includes all of the following criticisms of Piaget's theory EXCEPT: 
A. Piaget largely overlooked the important roles that social interactions and cultural influences play in the process of cognitive development. 
B. Many adults fail to attain formal operational thinking or only attain formal operational thinking in limited areas of knowledge. 
C. Infants seem to acquire object permanence at a much earlier age than Piaget suggested. 
D. Children in the concrete operational stage display a much greater capacity for abstract thought than Piaget believed.
Answer: D 
109. Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky believed that cognitive development is strongly influenced by: 
A. social and cultural factors. 
B. heredity. 
C. spurts of brain growth involving dramatic increases in the number of connections between neurons. 
D. the opportunity to actively explore one's physical environment.
Answer: A 
110. The main difference between Piaget's and Vygotsky's theories of development is that: 
A. Vygotsky's theory supplied additional evidence for Piaget's conclusions. 
B. Piaget stressed the child's independent discoveries, whereas Vygotsky stressed that supportive interactions with parents and others played a key role in cognitive development. 
C. Vygotsky stressed the independent efforts of the child, whereas Piaget stressed formal learning experiences. 
D. the stages of cognitive development in Vygotsky's theory occur at an earlier age than the corresponding stages in Piaget's theory.
Answer: B 
111. The information-processing model of cognitive development emphasizes the view that cognitive development is: 
A. a process of continuous change over the lifespan. 
B. greatly enhanced by computerized practice of basic skills. 
C. almost completely accomplished prior to the adolescent years. 
D. a series of eight distinct stages that extend from infancy to late adulthood.
Answer: A 
112. According to the Focus on Neuroscience section, from birth to age 6, brain development is characterized by: 
A. a sharp increase in the number of synaptic connections between neurons. 
B. the selective elimination, called pruning, of unused dendrites, neurons, and synaptic connections. 
C. a doubling of the brain's size and volume. 
D. a large increase in the number of neurons, but a decrease in the number of synaptic connections among neurons.
Answer: A 
113. According to the Focus on Neuroscience section, from approximately age 6 to early adolescence, brain development is characterized by: 
A. a sharp increase in the number of synaptic connections among neurons. 
B. the selective elimination, called pruning, of unused dendrites, neurons, and synaptic connections. 
C. a doubling of the brain's size and volume. 
D. a large increase in the number of neurons, but a decrease in the number of synaptic connections among neurons.
Answer: B 
114. The stage that marks the transition between childhood and adulthood is called: 
A. adolescence. 
B. middle age. 
C. diffusion. 
D. identity formation.
Answer: A 
115. What characterizes the relationships between adolescents and their parents? 
A. Parents remain influential throughout their children's adolescence. 
B. Adolescents disengage completely from their parents and other family members. 
C. Parent-adolescent relationships are stormy and usually very negative. 
D. Parent-adolescent relationships dramatically deteriorate in about two-thirds of all families.
Answer: A 
116. Ginny's son Bill is almost 13. Ginny has always enjoyed a good relationship with Bill, but after hearing horror stories from other parents about their teen-aged children, she is worried that once Bill becomes a teenager, their relationship will deteriorate, and he will become impossible to handle. According to psychological research, Ginny and Bill's relationship during adolescence will most likely: 
A. be marked by extreme and frequent disagreements and conflicts throughout adolescence. 
B. improve during early adolescence and deteriorate during late adolescence as Bill becomes more rebellious. 
C. rapidly deteriorate. 
D. continue to be good throughout adolescence, since their relationship was good during childhood.
Answer: D 
117. Adolescent relationships are characterized by which of the following? 
A. Relationships with parents become more important, while relationships with peers become less important. 
B. Relationships with peers become all important, while relationships with parents are not important at all. 
C. Relationships with peers increase in importance, but relationships with parents remain important. 
D. Relationships with others become less important, as the adolescent tends to focus on developing his or her own identity.
Answer: C 
118. Ron's son Matthew is 15 years old. Ron is worried because Matthew seems increasingly dependent upon the opinions of his friends, and Ron is afraid that Matthew's peers will be a bad influence on him. According to psychological research: 
A. peers almost always have a bad influence on an adolescent. 
B. peers are just as likely to have a positive influence on an adolescent as a negative influence. 
C. parents should choose an adolescent's friends, because adolescents have poor judgment regarding their peers. 
D. peer relationships are not as important to Bill as is his relationship with his mother.
Answer: B 
119. Which of the following correctly describes peer relationships during adolescence? 
A. Peer relationships are typically short lived and have little or no impact on the adolescent's goals, values, or traits. 
B. Because adolescents are so rebellious, they are naturally drawn to peers who are opposed to their parents' values in every way. 
C. Adolescent peer relationships tend to reinforce the traits and goals that parents fostered during childhood. 
D. An adolescent's peers typically undermine the parents' values and goals for the adolescent.
Answer: C 
120. Usually, conflicts between parents and their adolescent children focus on issues of: 
A. control and authority. 
B. finances. 
C. using the family car. 
D. sexuality.
Answer: A 
121. Many developmental psychologists view the increased conflict between parents and their early- and middle-adolescent children as: 
A. unhealthy and destructive to the family unit. 
B. a necessary stage in an adolescent's development of increased independence. 
C. necessary so parents can exert their dominance over their children. 
D. a result of too much violence that adolescents see on television.
Answer: B 
122. Psychologists who have conducted research on adolescent development in different cultures have found that conflict between parents and their adolescent children is: 
A. present in some cultures but not in others. 
B. at its highest levels in Asian countries. 
C. present in all of the groups that have been studied. 
D. largely a function of genetic-environment interactions.
Answer: C 
123. When levels of conflict between adolescents and their parents were compared, which cultural group had the HIGHEST level of parent-adolescent conflict? 
A. Chinese adolescents living in Taipei, Taiwan. 
B. Chinese-American adolescents 
C. Chinese adolescents living in Beijing, China 
D. European-American adolescents
Answer: D 
124. When levels of conflict between  adolescents and their parents were compared among four different ethnic groups living in California, researchers found that: 
A. Mexican-American adolescents  had higher levels of conflict than European-American adolescents, and Filipino- and Chinese-American reported lower levels of conflict than European-American adolescents. 
B. Mexican-American, Filipino-American, and Chinese-American adolescents all had lower levels of conflict with their parents than European-American adolescents. 
C. European-American adolescents and  Mexican-American adolescents had higher levels of conflict with their parents than the Chinese-Americans or the Filipino-Americans. 
D. Adolescents of all four ethnic groups reported very similar levels of conflict with their parents.
Answer: D 
125. Based on the cross-cultural research presented in your text, what can be concluded about parent-offspring relationships during adolescence? 
A. In both individualistic and collectivistic cultures, conflict is highest in late adolescence. 
B. Conflict between adolescents and their parents is more intense in traditional, collectivistic cultures than in individualistic cultures like the United States, where adolescents are given more freedom. 
C. In both collectivistic and individualistic cultures, adolescents are motivated to develop increased independence and autonomy. 
D. Adolescents in highly traditional, collectivistic cultures report virtually no conflict with their parents, suggesting that adolescent rebellion is present primarily in individualistic cultures like the United States.
Answer: C 
126. In adolescence, personal identity tends to shift from the _____ self-descriptions that characterized childhood to more _____ self-descriptions. 
A. concrete; abstract 
B. abstract; concrete 
C. fixed; flexible 
D. imaginary; realistic
Answer: A 
127. Rachel describes herself in this way: "I go to Emerson school and I like to play with my friend Heather. I have a dog and two parakeets." Sarah describes herself in this way: "I am not very self-confident, but I believe that I am a unique person who was put on this earth for some reason. My goals include becoming a better person, helping others, and possibly running for political office someday." From their descriptions of themselves, what age would you predict each to be? 
A. Rachel and Sarah are probably both adolescents. 
B. Rachel is an adolescent, and Sarah is in middle childhood. 
C. Rachel and Sarah are both children. 
D. Rachel is in middle childhood, while Sarah is an adolescent.
Answer: D 
128. The theorist who proposed that each stage of the lifespan is associated with a particular psychosocial conflict that needs to be resolved was: 
A. Mary Salter Ainsworth. 
B. Erik Erikson. 
C. Lawrence Kohlberg. 
D. Jean Piaget.
Answer: B 
129. According to Erikson's theory, the psychosocial conflict that needs to be resolved during adolescence is: 
A. trust versus mistrust. 
B. initiative versus guilt. 
C. ego integrity versus despair. 
D. identity versus identity diffusion.
Answer: D 
130. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development held that: 
A. personality is determined by how childhood conflicts are resolved and is typically fixed by age 8. 
B. psychosocial development begins in early adulthood, when personal identity has stabilized. 
C. by middle adulthood, psychosocial development is complete. 
D. psychosocial development continues throughout the lifespan, with each stage marked by a particular challenge for further psychological development.
Answer: D 
131. According to Erikson, during the "moratorium" period of adolescent identity achievement, the adolescent: 
A. experiments with different roles, values, and beliefs. 
B. makes commitments to particular values, beliefs, and a particular vocation. 
C. has no commitment to any particular vocational choice or social role. 
D. has a very concrete self-identity that reflects immediate concerns and activities.
Answer: A 
132. Regarding Erikson's conclusions about identity development in adolescence, psychological research has shown that: 
A. personal identity is either resolved by the end of adolescence or it is never successfully resolved. 
B. personal identity begins to take shape in adolescence, but continues to evolve throughout the lifespan. 
C. personal identity is not a very important aspect of psychological and social development. 
D. the typical adolescent is not concerned with issues related to personal identity.
Answer: B 
133. Nicholas is 15 years old. Talking with his friends, he says, "Sometimes I think I would like to be a scientist, someone who makes discoveries that help people. Then I think that maybe a career in politics or medicine is more my style. I can't decide whether I should study pre-med, pre-law, or maybe microbiology." It is likely that Nicholas is in the _____ of identity development. 
A. generativity phase 
B. moratorium period 
C. integrated identity stage 
D. ego integrity stage
Answer: B 
134. According to Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infancy is characterized by the psychosocial conflict of: 
A. trust versus mistrust. 
B. identity versus identity diffusion. 
C. autonomy versus doubt. 
D. intimacy versus isolation.
Answer: A 
135. Gayle is very inconsistent in the care she gives her new baby. Often, she neglects the baby's needs and is emotionally cold toward the infant. In terms of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the baby is likely to develop: 
A. autonomy. 
B. mistrust. 
C. inferiority. 
D. identity diffusion.
Answer: B 
136. When Ryan brings home his spelling and math papers from the second grade, Ryan's stepmother expresses pride in his work and posts the papers on the refrigerator for the other family members to see. In terms of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, Ryan's stepmother is fostering a sense of _____ in Ryan. 
A. generativity 
B. identity 
C. industry 
D. autonomy
Answer: C 
137. According to Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the early childhood years from ages 3 to 6 are characterized by the psychosocial conflict of: 
A. trust versus mistrust. 
B. industry versus inferiority. 
C. autonomy versus doubt. 
D. initiative versus guilt.
Answer: D 
138. Which of the following represents the correct order of the first four psychosocial conflicts that characterize infancy and the childhood years in Erikson's theory? 
A. trust versus mistrust, autonomy versus doubt, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority 
B. autonomy versus doubt, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority, trust versus mistrust 
C. trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority, autonomy versus doubt 
D. trust versus mistrust, autonomy versus doubt, industry versus inferiority, identity versus identity diffusion
Answer: A 
139. Which of the following represents the correct order of the four psychosocial conflicts that characterize the adolescent and adult years in Erikson's theory? 
A. identity versus identity diffusion, generativity versus stagnation, intimacy versus isolation, ego integrity versus despair 
B. identity versus identity diffusion, intimacy versus isolation, generativity versus stagnation, ego integrity versus despair 
C. intimacy versus isolation, identity versus identity diffusion, generativity versus stagnation, ego integrity versus despair 
D. industry versus inferiority, identity versus identity diffusion, generativity versus stagnation, ego integrity versus despair
Answer: B 
140. Despite the fact that Crystal is doing above average work in fourth grade, her father tells her that her grades are unsatisfactory and that she is not working hard enough. According to Erikson's theory, Crystal is likely to develop a pervasive sense of: 
A. mistrust. 
B. despair. 
C. inferiority. 
D. doubt.
Answer: C 
141. Thirty-year-old Alayna is painfully shy and so sensitive to rejection that she rarely talks to people other than her coworkers and her family members. Occasionally, a man asks her out, but she always refuses. She spends a good deal of time reading and writing in her diary about her loneliness and other feelings. According to Erikson's theory, Alayna is facing the psychosocial conflict of _____ and is likely to develop _____. 
A. industry versus inferiority; industry 
B. autonomy versus guilt; guilt 
C. generativity versus stagnation; stagnation 
D. intimacy versus isolation; isolation
Answer: D 
142. Rob has put all of his energies into his job as a stockbroker, often working twelve or more hours a day, and usually working on weekends. He has been very successful and, by the age of 45, has already amassed what amounts to a small fortune. Although he continues to put in long hours at work, he is beginning to feel dissatisfied and bored with his life. According to Erikson's theory, Rob is probably facing the psychosocial conflict of _____ and is likely to develop _____. 
A. generativity versus stagnation; stagnation 
B. ego integrity versus despair; despair 
C. intimacy versus isolation; isolation 
D. industry versus inferiority; industry
Answer: A 
143. According to Erikson's theory, in late adulthood, regret is to _____ as self-acceptance and pride is to _____. 
A. inferiority; industry 
B. isolation; intimacy 
C. despair; ego identity 
D. stagnation; generativity
Answer: C 
144. Mrs. Dillon had been a teacher in the local public school system for more than thirty years. Now retired, she finds herself wondering why she ever took up teaching and thinking about how she wasted the best years of her life trying to teach ungrateful and lazy students. She wishes that she had chosen another profession when she was younger. According to Erikson's theory, Mrs. Dillon is probably experiencing: 
A. identity diffusion. 
B. despair. 
C. isolation. 
D. guilt.
Answer: B 
145. Moral reasoning refers to: 
A. the aspect of cognitive development relating to how an individual reasons about moral decisions. 
B. the moral choices that are made in adolescence. 
C. decisions regarding the choice of religion. 
D. determining whether a particular behavior or choice is in accordance with society's laws.
Answer: A 
146. According to _____, moral development unfolds in distinct, age-related stages. 
A. Diana Baumrind 
B. Lawrence Kohlberg 
C. Erik Erikson 
D. Lev Vygotsky
Answer: B 
147. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, there are _____ levels of moral reasoning, each of which is divided into _____ stages of development. 
A. three; three 
B. two; three 
C. two; two 
D. three; two
Answer: D 
148. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, the three levels of moral reasoning are: 
A. preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. 
B. conventional, unconventional, and concrete operational. 
C. mutual benefit, law and order, and universal moral principles. 
D. trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, and industry versus inferiority.
Answer: A 
149. In Kohlberg's theory, each level of moral reasoning is based on the: 
A. degree to which a person obeys the law. 
B. degree to which a person avoids morally ambivalent situations. 
C. person's level of egocentrism. 
D. degree to which a person conforms to conventional standards in society.
Answer: D 
150. In Kohlberg's theory, the preconventional level is characterized by: 
A. moral reasoning based on avoiding punishment and maximizing personal gain. 
B. moral reasoning that emphasizes the importance of social roles, rules, and obligations. 
C. showing respect for authorities simply because they are authorities. 
D. concern for all members of society.
Answer: A 
151. When Jacob's mother asks him to watch his younger brother, Jacob responds that he'll do so if she'll pay him $5. In terms of Kohlberg's theory, Jacob is operating at the _____ level of moral reasoning. 
A. preconventional 
B. conventional 
C. postconventional 
D. universal
Answer: A 
152. Nine-year-old Spencer is at the preconventional level of moral reasoning. When he is asked why he did not cheat on his math test when the instructor left the room, even though several other students did, he responded: 
A. "Because cheating is morally wrong." 
B. "Because I was afraid I would get caught." 
C. "Because I didn't want anyone to think that I was the kind of person who would cheat on a test." 
D. "Because my test score would have no meaning if I achieved it by cheating."
Answer: B 
153. Third-grader Renee takes great pride in the praise she receives from her teacher for being a good student, helping other students, and obeying the classroom rules. In terms of Kohlberg's theory, Renee is operating at the _____ level of moral reasoning. 
A. preconventional 
B. conventional 
C. postconventional 
D. universal
Answer: B 
154. When David's son asked why they had to buy a fishing license, David explained that it was a law and that they had to obey the laws established by authorities. In terms of Kohlberg's theory, David is operating at the _____ level of moral reasoning. 
A. preconventional 
B. conventional 
C. postconventional 
D. universal
Answer: B 
155. In Kohlberg's theory of moral development, the conventional level is characterized by: 
A. moral reasoning based on avoiding punishment and maximizing personal gain. 
B. moral reasoning that emphasizes the importance of social roles, rules, and obligations. 
C. adherence to legalistic principles that promote the values of fairness, justice, equality, and democracy. 
D. concern for all members of society.
Answer: B 
156. The sister of the murdered woman was among the protesters outside the prison in the hours before the execution. When a reporter asked the woman why she was opposed to the execution of the man who had murdered her sister, she explained that she was opposed to all killing, including the execution of her sister's murderer. In terms of Kohlberg's theory, the woman is operating at the _____ level of moral reasoning. 
A. preconventional 
B. conventional 
C. law and order 
D. postconventional
Answer: D 
157. The preconventional level of moral reasoning is divided into what stages? 
A. law and order; legal principles 
B. interpersonal expectations; universal moral principles 
C. law and order; punishment and obedience 
D. punishment and obedience; mutual benefit
Answer: D 
158. Justin made a presentation in speech class in which he argued the position that protesters against the Vietnam War did not have the right to evade military service if drafted because doing so would be breaking the law, and it was wrong to break the laws established by authorities. Justin is displaying moral reasoning that is at what level and what stage? 
A. postconventional; stage 6, universal moral principles 
B. conventional; stage 4, law and order 
C. preconventional; stage 1, punishment and obedience 
D. postconventional; stage 5, legal principles.
Answer: B 
159. Lillian is a deeply committed vegetarian. When asked why she does not eat meat or use products, like leather, that are made from animal hides, she responds: "Because I believe that all life is sacred, and that it is just as immoral to profit from the death of an animal as it is to profit from the death of a human." What level and stage of moral reasoning is Lillian displaying? 
A. postconventional; stage 6, universal moral principles 
B. postconventional; stage 5, legal principles 
C. preconventional; mutual benefit 
D. conventional; interpersonal expectations
Answer: A 
160. Kohlberg and his colleagues eventually dropped stage _____ from his theory because _____. 
A. 1, punishment and obedience; children under the age of 5 do not demonstrate any form of moral reasoning 
B. 5, legal principles; stage 5 was indistinguishable from stage 4, law and order 
C. 6, universal moral principles; hardly anyone ever achieved stage 6 reasoning 
D. 6, universal moral principles; adolescents usually achieve stage 6 but then regress to stage 4 in adulthood
Answer: C 
161. Carol Gilligan's chief criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is that: 
A. his theory does not accurately describe moral reasoning in childhood. 
B. his theory reflects an ethic of care and responsibility rather than an ethic of individual rights. 
C. his theory reflects a male perspective of moral development, which may not apply to moral development in women. 
D. his approach to moral development is based upon philosophical speculation rather than empirical research.
Answer: C 
162. According to Carol Gilligan's model of moral development: 
A. men tend to stress individual rights and justice, whereas women tend to stress care, responsibility, and maintaining interpersonal relationships. 
B. the beginning of true moral development does not occur until young adulthood. 
C. justice and individual rights are a poor basis for moral decisions. 
D. women are more likely than men to display stage 6 moral reasoning.
Answer: A 
163. How does culture affect moral reasoning? 
A. Culture has no effect on moral reasoning, as Kohlberg's stages of moral development are universal. 
B. Members of collectivistic cultures are more likely to attain stage 6 reasoning. 
C. Collectivistic cultures tend to stress interdependence and concern for the welfare of others and put less emphasis on individual rights and justice. 
D. Collectivistic cultures tend to stress individual rights and put less emphasis upon care and responsibility for others.
Answer: C 
164. Development during adulthood reflects the increasing importance of: 
A. moral development. 
B. individual variation. 
C. social conflicts. 
D. temperament.
Answer: B 
165. The end of menstruation in women, marking the end of reproductive capacity, is called: 
A. menopause. 
B. conservation. 
C. menarche. 
D. centration.
Answer: A 
166. The normal age range for menopause to occur is: 
A. early thirties. 
B. age 35 to 40. 
C. age 50 to early sixties. 
D. late thirties to early fifties.
Answer: D 
167. Janelle is 47 years old. Her doctor tells her that she has entered menopause. Janelle: 
A. is entering menopause abnormally early. 
B. is entering menopause abnormally late. 
C. is within the normal range for menopause to occur. 
D. could easily become pregnant.
Answer: C 
168. Physical strength tends to peak in: 
A. middle adulthood. 
B. early adulthood. 
C. late adulthood. 
D. adolescence.
Answer: B 
169. Mr. Putty is a normal, healthy, 47-year-old man. In general, he can expect his physical stamina, strength, and reaction time to: 
A. be the same as when he was in his twenties and thirties. 
B. decline dramatically over the next three years. 
C. gradually decline over the next ten years. 
D. gradually increase over the next twenty years.
Answer: C 
170. According to your textbook, the two fundamental themes that dominate adult development are: 
A. making money and planning for retirement. 
B. love and work. 
C. friendship and marriage. 
D. finding a mate and having children.
Answer: B 
171. Jack and Maggie are both 35 years old. How are their relationships with same-sex friends likely to differ? 
A. Jack shares activities with his male friends, while Maggie talks to her female friends about her feelings and problems. 
B. Jack talks to his male friends about his problems and his marriage, and Maggie plays golf and goes bowling with her female friends. 
C. Both Maggie and Jack are likely to talk to their same-sex friends about their feelings, personal problems, and relationships. 
D. Jack is more likely than Maggie to benefit from his friendships.
Answer: A 
172. In comparison to male friendships, female friendships tend to focus on: 
A. shared activities. 
B. helping each other with household and work-related tasks. 
C. talking about their feelings, problems, and relationships. 
D. pursuing hobbies or sports.
Answer: C 
173. Kesha and Jacob have just become engaged to get married. Kesha is 25 and Jacob is two years older. In comparison to national averages: 
A. Kesha and Jacob are both younger than the median age for first marriage. 
B. Kesha and Jacob are both older than the median age for first marriage. 
C. Kesha is older and Jacob is younger than the median age for first marriage. 
D. Kesha and Jacob are both close to the median age for first marriage.
Answer: D 
174. In comparison to the age at which young adults got married in 1960, the median age for first marriage in the year 2000 was: 
A. younger for both males and females. 
B. older for both males and females. 
C. older for males and younger for females. 
D. younger for males and older for females.
Answer: B 
175. Psychological research has shown that, in general, people are most likely to marry: 
A. someone who is similar in physical attractiveness, status, ethnicity, beliefs, and values. 
B. som
Answer: A 
176. Dina and Mark have been married for three years and are expecting their first child. If their relationship follows the most common pattern, they can expect that their satisfaction with their marital relationship to _____ after the baby is born. 
A. increase gradually and then plateau 
B. stay the same 
C. decrease 
D. increase sharply 
Answer: C 
177. Judy and Dean have just had their first child after having been married for five years. Which of the following factors will make it more likely that they will not experience a decline in marital satisfaction? 
A. if they try to have a second baby as soon as possible 
B. if Judy's mother moves in with them until the baby is six months old 
C. if Judy quits her job to care for the baby at home and Dean takes a second job to make up for Judy's lost income 
D. if Judy and Dean have a warm, positive relationship and if they share household and child-care responsibilities 
Answer: D 
178. Tom and Julie have been married for ten years. Now in their mid-thirties, they are expecting their first child. Their adjustment to parenthood is likely to be _____ than that of younger parents because _____. 
A. more difficult; they are older and more set in their ways 
B. easier; they are more mature and their relationship is more stable 
C. more difficult; they will not have the energy that younger parents have 
D. about the same; they are faced with the same adjustment problems as younger parents 
Answer: B 
179. Bob and Connie have raised three children. The youngest has just graduated from college and is about to leave home to take a job in another city. Over the next few years, Bob and Connie can expect to experience: 
A. the dissatisfaction, loneliness, and boredom that accompanies the "empty nest" syndrome. 
B. a sharp decrease in marital satisfaction. 
C. a steady increase in marital satisfaction. 
D. no noticeable change in their marital relationship or level of marital satisfaction. 
Answer: C 
180. Since 1970, how has the structure of American families changed? 
A. The number of single-parent households has doubled, while the number of married couples living together with children has decreased. 
B. The number of childless married couples has almost doubled. 
C. The number of two-parent households with children has increased dramatically, while the number of single-parent households has dropped. 
D. The number of people living in the average American household has almost doubled. 
Answer: A 
181. Approximately what percentage of children in the United States are being raised by a single parent? 
A. 50 
B. 30 
C. 10 
D. less than 5 
Answer: B 
182. Which of the following statements regarding career development in adulthood is TRUE? 
A. Very few people commit to a particular occupation in young adulthood. 
B. About 75 percent of adults change careers after age 25. 
C. Married women are more likely than single women to interrupt their career because of child-care responsibilities. 
D. Dual career families have become less common. 
Answer: C 
183. Marcia has a successful but demanding career that she enjoys, two children who receive consistent and high quality care, and a close, mutually supportive relationship with her husband. According to the psychological research, Marcia is likely to: 
A. experience a high level of stress because of her multiple roles. 
B. experience a low level of stress, and her multiple roles will probably enhance her psychological well-being. 
C. have a nervous breakdown as she struggles to meet the needs and expectations of the people around her. 
D. experience a low level of stress, but her husband and children are likely to experience a very high level of stress. 
Answer: B 
184. Nancy has just separated from her husband, has a low-paying job that she dislikes, and can barely afford child care for her two young children. According to the psychological research, Nancy's multiple roles are likely to: 
A. significantly increase the amount of stress that she experiences. 
B. significantly decrease the amount of stress she experiences. 
C. have no effect on the level of stress she experiences. 
D. buffer the job-related stress she experiences. 
Answer: A 
185. In the United States, average life expectancy for men is about _____ years, whereas average life expectancy for women is about _____ years. 
A. 79; 72 
B. 80; 89 
C. 74; 79 
D. 80; 70 
Answer: C 
186. The majority of adults aged 65 and older in the United States are: 
A. in nursing homes or other special care facilities. 
B. incapacitated by illness or disability. 
C. held in high esteem in American culture. 
D. healthy, active, and self-sufficient. 
Answer: D 
187. Approximately what percentage of adults aged 85 or older live in nursing homes? 
A. less than 20 percent 
B. more than 90 percent 
C. about 50 percent 
D. about two-thirds 
Answer: A 
188. During their last year of life, MOST older adults: 
A. live in a nursing home. 
B. are in relatively good health, self-sufficient, and mentally alert. 
C. are impoverished and dependent upon others for support. 
D. are completely disabled. 
Answer: B 
189. Today, about 1 in ____ Americans is 65 or older, and by the year 2030, about 1 in _____ Americans will be 65 or older. 
A. 20; 10 
B. 10; 10 
C. 8; 5 
D. 5; 10 
Answer: C 
190. In a research study, American college students were shown photographs of the same man at ages 25, 52, and 74. When asked to compare the men in the photographs, the college students: 
A. rated them as being approximately the same in terms of intelligence, activity level, and competence, but rated the 74-year-old as least healthy. 
B. rated the 74-year-old as least active, healthy, intelligent, and competent. 
C. rated the 25-year-old as most active but as less intelligent than the 52-year-old and 74-year-old. 
D. rated the 74-year-old as most intelligent, the 52-year-old as most competent, and the 25-year-old as most active and healthy. 
Answer: B 
191. Which psychologist has conducted long-term and extensive research on cognitive changes in late adulthood? 
A. Jean Piaget 
B. Lawrence Kohlberg 
C. K. Warner Schaie 
D. Lev Vygotsky 
Answer: C 
192. At what age do people reach their intellectual peak? 
A. in their twenties 
B. in their forties 
C. in their teens 
D. in their seventies 
Answer: B 
193. After age 60, a _____ percentage of adults experience _____ declines in general intellectual abilities. 
A. large; extreme 
B. small; extreme 
C. large; slight 
D. small; slight 
Answer: D 
194. Psychological research shows that among healthy older adults, the LARGEST declines in mental abilities are experienced by: 
A. well-educated people. 
B. people who are poorly educated and live unstimulating lives. 
C. people who engage in many physical and mental activities. 
D. people who are living in a senior housing complex or nursing home. 
Answer: B 
195. Mr. Lester and Mr. Vann are next-door neighbors. Mr. Lester and Mr. Vann each live alone, and both are 75. They are in good physical health. Mr. Lester spends most of his time watching television and rarely leaves his house. Mr. Vann reads many books and magazines, walks every day, works as a volunteer at the local library, and frequently plays penny poker with some friends. Based on this information, you can predict that: 
A. Mr. Lester and Mr. Vann are likely to experience the same level of decline in mental abilities, since both are the same age. 
B. Mr. Lester is likely to experience less of a decline in mental abilities than Mr. Vann, because Mr. Lester conserves his strength and is less likely to get sick. 
C. because he remains mentally and physically active, Mr. Vann is less likely to experience a decline in mental abilities than Mr. Lester. 
D. Mr. Vann's multiple roles may increase the level of stress that he experiences. 
Answer: C 
196. According to the activity theory of aging: 
A. as people move from middle adulthood to older adulthood, they should greatly increase their level of activity. 
B. older adults gradually disengage from their social, vocational, and relationship roles. 
C. older adults should postpone retirement for as long as possible in order to maintain their physical health. 
D. older adults will achieve the highest level of life satisfaction if they maintain their previous level of activity. 
Answer: D 
197. Mrs. Hall has always enjoyed quiet, solitary pursuits, such as gardening and reading. Now that she is almost 80, the activity theory of aging would predict that her life satisfaction will be highest if she: 
A. disengages from those activities. 
B. joins several senior citizen groups, travels, and takes up new hobbies that force her to interact with other people. 
C. continues to pursue the activities that she has always enjoyed. 
D. joins a health club and starts exercising. 
Answer: C 
198. Erv and Fern continue to care for older relatives and for their young grandchildren even though they are both older adults. This is an example of: 
A. the fact that caregiving responsibilities can persist throughout the lifespan. 
B. the fact that relatives often take advantage of older adults and overestimate their energy level. 
C. the disengagement from everyday life that takes place in late adulthood. 
D. the fact that American culture does not appropriately value the contributions of older adults. 
Answer: A 
199. Which of the following is NOT a psychological benefit described by the text that can be provided by a confidant, or close friend, in late adulthood? 
A. to provide social support 
B. to handle the older adult's finances 
C. to help cope with stressful events, such as illness or the death of a family member 
D. to improve mental health and psychological well-being 
Answer: B 
200. According to Erik Erikson, the psychosocial conflict faced in old age is: 
A. autonomy versus doubt. 
B. intimacy versus isolation. 
C. ego integrity versus despair. 
D. generativity versus stagnation. 
Answer: C 
201. By "ego integrity" Erik Erikson meant: 
A. maintaining continuity in one's activity level throughout the lifespan. 
B. expressing unselfish concern for the welfare of the next generation. 
C. maintaining a sense of connectedness and intimacy with others throughout the lifespan. 
D. the feeling that one's life has been meaningful. 
Answer: D 
202. At his 85th birthday party, Mr. Torttorici told many stories to his grandchildren and great-grandchildren about his childhood in Sicily, how he emigrated to the United States as a young adult, his wartime experiences, and what he has learned over the past half-century. You could describe Mr. Torttorici's story-telling more formally as: 
A. a life review. 
B. the activity theory of aging. 
C. moral reasoning. 
D. an example of memory loss. 
Answer: A 
203. Anxiety about death tends to _____ in middle adulthood and _____ in late adulthood. 
A. decrease; peak 
B. peak; decrease 
C. reach its lowest point; reach its highest point 
D. increase; peak 
Answer: B 
204. Identify the researcher who proposed that dying people go through five distinct stages. 
A. Robert Kastenbaum 
B. Elisabeth Kźbler-Ross 
C. Erik Erikson 
D. Lawrence Kohlberg 
Answer: B 
205. List in the correct sequence the five stages in the dying process that were identified by Kźbler-Ross. 
A. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance 
B. anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance, denial 
C. anxiety, denial, depression, bargaining, fear 
D. fear, bargaining, depression, anger, anxiety 
Answer: A 
206. Sid is seriously ill, and his doctor has warned him that his chances of survival are not good. When Sid's wife visits him in the hospital, Sid tells her that he is feeling much better and expects to be home in a couple of days and back to work in a matter of weeks. According to Kźbler-Ross's model of dying, Sid is in which stage of the dying process? 
A. depression 
B. denial 
C. bargaining 
D. anxiety 
Answer: B 
207. In general, researchers have found that people who are dying: 
A. inevitably progress through the five stages described by Kźbler-Ross. 
B. typically experience fear, anger, depression, denial, and then hope. 
C. progress through the stages of hope, bargaining, fear, anxiety, and finally acceptance. 
D. do not progress through any particular sequence of stages, but rather cope with dying as they have coped with other stresses in life. 
Answer: D 
208. The three basic parenting styles described by psychologist Diana Baumrind are: 
A. authoritarian, authoritative, and permissive. 
B. permissive-indulgent, authoritative, and ambivalent. 
C. authoritarian, indulgent, inductive. 
D. ambivalent, reciprocal, and permissive. 
Answer: A 
209. Parenting styles can be described in terms of two dimensions: 
A. parental control and parental responsiveness. 
B. level of discipline and type of punishment. 
C. type of explanation and socioeconomic background. 
D. level of affection and level of indulgence. 
Answer: A 
210. Parents who are demanding but unresponsive to their children's needs are called _____, whereas parents who are demanding yet responsive to their children's needs are called _____. 
A. authoritative; permissive 
B. authoritarian; authoritative 
C. permissive; indulgent 
D. indifferent; authoritarian 
Answer: B 
211. Permissive-_____ parents are responsive to their children but do not exert much control over them. Permissive- _____ parents do not impose rules on their children and are also not very responsive to them. 
A. indulgent; indifferent 
B. indifferent; indulgent 
C. cheerful; lazy 
D. impulsive; inductive 
Answer: A 
212. Marlene's son begs to go to a baseball game on a school night. After some consideration, Marlene says she will take him as long as he finishes his homework before the game and promises to go to bed as soon as they get home. Marlene is demonstrating what kind of parenting style? 
A. authoritarian 
B. permissive-indulgent 
C. authoritative 
D. permissive-indifferent 
Answer: C 
213. Geri's son wants to go to a football game on a school night. Without asking her son how he will get to the football game or when he will be home, Geri tells him that she doesn't care if he goes or not. Geri is demonstrating which parenting style? 
A. authoritarian 
B. permissive-indulgent 
C. authoritative 
D. permissive-indifferent 
Answer: D 
214. Jack's daughter Molly wants to go to a school play on a week night, promising that she will make sure that she finishes her homework in study hall at school. Jack says, "Absolutely not. The rule is no social events on school nights, no matter what." Jack is demonstrating which parenting style? 
A. authoritarian 
B. permissive-indulgent 
C. authoritative 
D. permissive-indifferent 
Answer: A 
215. Richard's daughter Linda wants to go to a concert on a school night and come home past her usual curfew. Richard says, "If it's that important to you, I'll pay for the ticket and let you take my car." Richard is demonstrating which parenting style? 
A. ambivalent 
B. permissive-indulgent 
C. permissive-indifferent 
D. authoritative 
Answer: B 
216. Overall, researchers have found that the _____ style of parenting is most likely to be associated with children who are well-adjusted, competent, receive higher grades, and are less likely than their peers to get into trouble. 
A. authoritarian 
B. permissive-indulgent 
C. permissive-indifferent 
D. authoritative 
Answer: D 
217. Children with _____ parents are more likely to rebel, whereas children with _____ parents are more likely to lack self-control. 
A. authoritarian; permissive 
B. authoritative; authoritarian 
C. permissive-indifferent; permissive-indulgent 
D. authoritarian; authoritative 
Answer: A 
218. The most effective form of discipline is _____, which involves combining control of behavior with _____. 
A. authoritarian; punishment 
B. induction; teaching 
C. authoritative; indifference 
D. induction; punishment 
Answer: B 
219. Which of the following is NOT recommended as an effective way for parents to foster psychological health in their children? 
A. combine parental control with affection, responsiveness to the child's needs, and flexibility 
B. consider the child's temperament, age, and stage of cognitive development in setting reasonable expectations for the child's behavior 
C. expect even very young children to think and behave like miniature adults 
D. listen to the child and provide plenty of warmth and affection 
Answer: C