1. Motivation is defined as: 
A. forces that act on or within an organism to initiate and direct behavior. 
B. an impulse that activates behavior to reduce a need and restore homeostasis. 
C. full use and exploitation of talents, capacities, and potentialities. 
D. a distinct psychological state that involves subjective experience, physical arousal, and a behavioral expression or response.
Answer: 
2. The three basic characteristics commonly associated with motivation are: 
A. self-fulfillment, self-actualization, and the peak experience. 
B. activation, persistence, and intensity. 
C. escape, avoidance, and blaming. 
D. homeostasis, cholecystokinin and satiation.
Answer: 
3. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. Motivation is usually inferred from outward behavior. 
B. Activation, persistence, and intensity characterize motivated behavior. 
C. Motivational concepts are often used to explain or understand the behavior of others. 
D. All of the above are correct.
Answer: 
4. The chapter prologue described the story of Randy and his training efforts to participate in the annual Tulsa Run Race. Leading up to the race, Randy injured his ankle yet he continued to practice running in a swimming pool.  This illustrates which characteristic of motivation? 
A. activation 
B. extrinsic motivation 
C. persistence 
D. self-actualization
Answer: 
5. The characteristic of motivation known as activation refers to the: 
A. initiation or production of behavior. 
B. increased vigor in behavior toward a goal. 
C. efforts to achieve the desired goal. 
D. mental activity to move toward the start of behavior.
Answer: 
6. Persistence is a characteristic of motivation that is demonstrated by the: 
A. production of behavior toward a goal. 
B. continued efforts to achieve a particular goal. 
C. strength of efforts in responding toward a goal. 
D. timing of behavior toward a particular goal.
Answer: 
7. Intensity in motivation is seen as the: 
A. continuing efforts to achieve a goal. 
B. initiation of a goal-directed behavior. 
C. strength or vigor of responding. 
D. emotional component of motivation.
Answer: 
8. Sarah is determined to play the role of Clara in the ballet, "The Nutcracker." She begins to work very hard in ballet classes with this goal in mind. Sarah is demonstrating which characteristic of motivation? 
A. instinctual drive 
B. sensation seeking 
C. self-actualization 
D. activation
Answer: 
9. Although Hunter keeps falling when he tries to learn to ice skate, he keeps working at being a better skater so he can play ice hockey. Hunter is demonstrating the motivation characteristic of _____. 
A. emotion 
B. intensity 
C. persistence 
D. initiation
Answer: 
10. As the date of the state championships drew closer, Evan worked harder and longer in practice. Evan was demonstrating which characteristic of motivation? 
A. initiation 
B. intensity 
C. homeostasis 
D. activation
Answer: 
11. In the late 1800s, the newly founded science of psychology initially embraced _____ theories to explain motivation. 
A. instinct 
B. drive 
C. incentive 
D. all of the above
Answer: 
12. It is an innate characteristic of Canadian geese to fly south in the winter. This behavior is an example of: 
A. self-actualization. 
B. incentive motivation. 
C. an instinct. 
D. drive.
Answer: 
13. The view that some motives are innate and due to genetic programming is a description of: 
A. instinct theories. 
B. drive theories. 
C. incentive theories. 
D. humanistic theories.
Answer: 
14. Which of the following is a criticism of instinct theories of motivation? 
A. Research demonstrated that humans do not have an innate behavior pattern. 
B. Instinct theorists believed that there were only four human instincts. 
C. Instinct theories merely described and labeled behaviors rather than actually explaining them. 
D. Instinct theorists believed that certain human behaviors were genetically programmed.
Answer: 
15. Which influential scientist inspired psychologists to devise lists of instincts to account for human behavior? 
A. Charles Darwin 
B. Clark Hull 
C. B. F. Skinner 
D. Abraham Maslow
Answer: 
16. Dr. Mathias believes that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs that "push" us to behave in certain ways. Dr. Mathias's views are most consistent with _____ theories of motivation. 
A. instinct 
B. drive 
C. incentive 
D. humanistic
Answer: 
17. Reduction of internal tension would be most closely associated with which theory of motivation? 
A. instinct theories 
B. incentive theories 
C. drive theories 
D. self-actualization theories
Answer: 
18. _____ theories of motivation claim that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs. 
A. Drive 
B. Incentive 
C. Humanistic 
D. Instinct
Answer: 
19. About ten or fifteen minutes after Jim starts his daily five-mile jog, he usually begins to perspire heavily. His body's tendency to maintain a steady temperature through the cooling action of sweating is a function of: 
A. homeostasis. 
B. self-actualization. 
C. incentive motivation. 
D. instinct.
Answer: 
20. _____ refers to the notion that the body monitors and maintains internal states, such as body temperature and energy supplies, at relatively constant levels. 
A. Self-actualization 
B. Achievement motivation 
C. Incentive motivation 
D. Homeostasis
Answer: 
21. After working all afternoon cleaning up the attic, Mr. Dixon is very thirsty and drinks a big glass of orange juice. His motivation to drink to reduce his feeling of thirst can best be explained by: 
A. instinct theories. 
B. drive theories. 
C. incentive theories. 
D. humanistic theories.
Answer: 
22. Which of the following is a criticism of drive theories of motivation? 
A. People often engage in behaviors that serve to increase tension and physiological arousal. 
B. There is no evidence that humans engage in behaviors to maintain homeostasis. 
C. Homeostasis has been disproved. 
D. Drive theories cannot explain behaviors that have biological components, such as hunger and thirst.
Answer: 
23. The view that behavior is motivated by the pull of external goals, such as rewards, is suggested by: 
A. drive theories. 
B. Maslow's hierarchy of needs. 
C. Darwin's theory of evolution. 
D. incentive theories.
Answer: 
24. One shortcoming of incentive theories is that they: 
A. only describe behavior but fail to explain behavior. 
B. fail to explain behaviors that are not primarily motivated by any kind of external incentive. 
C. only explain behaviors that have internal incentives as motivators. 
D. can account for the initiation and persistence of behavior but fail to account for the intensity of behavior.
Answer: 
25. Taylor is highly motivated to maintain a high grade-point average because her goal is to pursue studies at the graduate level. Taylor's motivation is best explained by: 
A. instinct theories. 
B. drive theories. 
C. homeostasis. 
D. incentive theories.
Answer: 
26. Drive is to _____ as incentive is to _____. 
A. "push"; "pull" 
B. instinct; homeostasis 
C. "pull"; "push" 
D. self-actualization; instinct
Answer: 
27. The view that people are motivated to maintain an optimal level of arousal that is neither too high nor too low is called: 
A. the James-Lange theory. 
B. arousal theory. 
C. the Cannon-Bard theory. 
D. the cognitive-mediational theory.
Answer: 
28. The desire to avoid boredom is to _____ theory as the desire to drink when thirsty is to _____ theory. 
A. arousal; drive 
B. drive; arousal 
C. humanistic; incentive 
D. incentive; humanistic
Answer: 
29. A monkey spends hours trying to open a complicated lock even though there is no reward for doing so.  The monkey's behavior is best explained by _____ theory. 
A. drive 
B. instinct 
C. arousal 
D. incentive
Answer: 
30. Dr. Pierpoint believes that people are motivated to maintain an optimal level of arousal.  When that level is too low, we try to increase it by seeking out stimulating experiences.  When it is too high, we seek to reduce arousal in a less stimulating environment.  Dr. Pierpoint's views are most consistent with: 
A. the James-Lange theory. 
B. arousal theory. 
C. the Cannon-Bard theory. 
D. incentive theory.
Answer: 
31. Six-year-old Patrick was very excited and curious when his parents took him to the circus for the first time. However, when the clowns climbed over the barrier and started playing tricks on some of the children nearby, Patrick became visibly upset. Patrick's initial curiosity and his later fear and apprehension in this situation are best explained by: 
A. drive theory. 
B. instinct theory. 
C. incentive theory. 
D. arousal theory.
Answer: 
32. The term _____ describes people who are motivated to experience high levels of arousal associated with varied and novel activities. 
A. externals 
B. nonexternals 
C. sensation seekers 
D. self-actualizers
Answer: 
33. Sara is independent, open-minded, and loves adventurous outdoor activities such as downhill skiing, hang-gliding, and white water kayaking. Sara is likely to be classified as: 
A. an external. 
B. mentally ill. 
C. a sensation seeker. 
D. a nonexternal.
Answer: 
34. People who are motivated to experience high levels of arousal associated with varied and novel activities are called: 
A. externals. 
B. nonexternals. 
C. sensation seekers. 
D. anorexic.
Answer: 
35. Nelson feels that he has all the material possessions he needs in life and is now determined to devote all his energy to creative self-expression through music. Nelson's motivation is best accounted for by: 
A. instinct theories. 
B. drive theories. 
C. humanistic theories. 
D. homeostasis.
Answer: 
36. _____ motivational theories emphasize the importance of psychological and cognitive factors in humans, including the motivation to strive for a positive self-concept and the realization of personal potential. 
A. Humanistic 
B. Incentive 
C. Drive 
D. Instinct
Answer: 
37. Humanistic theories of motivation emphasize the idea that: 
A. motivation is learned through the basic principles of reinforcement and punishment. 
B. motivation is determined by unconscious thought processes. 
C. motivation is affected by how we perceive the world, how we think about ourselves, and the degree to which the environment is supportive and encouraging. 
D. an understanding of basic biological mechanisms, such as homeostasis, is the best way to understand human motivation.
Answer: 
38. Dr. Ashley emphasizes the importance of psychological and cognitive components in human motivation and believes that we are innately driven to strive for a positive self-concept and the realization of our personal potential. Dr. Ashley's views are most consistent with _____ theories of motivation. 
A. instinct 
B. drive 
C. incentive 
D. humanistic
Answer: 
39. The motivation to eat is influenced by: 
A. psychological factors. 
B. biological factors. 
C. social and cultural factors. 
D. all of the above.
Answer: 
40. Kai-Ching ate fried caterpillars, scorpions, and some grilled dog meat for dinner. It is very likely that Kai-Ching: 
A. is very poor and malnourished. 
B. is influenced in his eating habits by social and cultural factors. 
C. is mentally ill. 
D. eats regularly at the college cafeteria.
Answer: 
41. _____ is the main source of energy in your body. 
A. Glucose 
B. Leptin 
C. Insulin 
D. Cholecystokinin
Answer: 
42. Glucose is also called: 
A. blood sugar. 
B. dopamine. 
C. cholecystokinin. 
D. adipose tissue.
Answer: 
43. Which of the following is secreted by the pancreas, helps control blood levels of glucose, and promotes the uptake of glucose by the muscles and other body tissues? 
A. cholecystokinin 
B. dopamine 
C. leptin 
D. insulin
Answer: 
44. The rate at which your body uses energy for vital bodily functions when at rest is called the: 
A. homeostatic rate. 
B. set-point rate. 
C. basal metabolic rate. 
D. cholecystokinin rate.
Answer: 
45. Approximately _____ of your body's energy is used for continuous bodily functions that are essential to life, such as breathing, heartbeat, and the production of body heat. 
A. one-tenth 
B. one-fifth 
C. one-third 
D. two-thirds
Answer: 
46. Adipose tissue is another name for: 
A. leptin 
B. insulin 
C. muscle 
D. body fat
Answer: 
47. If you are like most people, your body's reserve of stored energy is: 
A. just enough to provide you with about 72 hours worth of energy to fuel basic metabolic requirements. 
B. will be completely depleted if positive energy balance occurs for an extended period of time. 
C. is mostly stored in your adipose tissue. 
D. highly variable.
Answer: 
48. The concept of energy homeostasis is illustrated by which of the following observations? 
A. Despite day-to-day variability in how much food is eaten, most people maintain a fairly constant baseline body weight. 
B. Pavlov classically conditioned a dog to salivate every thirty minutes. 
C. Despite voracious appetites, ob/ob mice display characteristics that are very similar to that of a starving animal. 
D. Excess calories are stored in adipose tissue.
Answer: 
49. Excess caloric intake is to _____ as restricted caloric intake is to _____. 
A. BMR; BMI 
B. positive energy balance; negative energy balance 
C. CCK; NPY 
D. drive; incentive
Answer: 
50. When she arrived as a freshman at State College, Mackenzie wanted to take advantage of the cafeteria meals that were included in the cost of her room and board. But between the eat-as-much-as-you-want cafeteria meals, the hours spent studying each day, and mostly sitting for her job at the library reception desk, Mackenzie had gained twelve pounds by Thanksgiving break.  Mackenzie was experiencing: 
A. positive energy balance. 
B. leptin resistance. 
C. negative energy balance. 
D. energy homeostasis.
Answer: 
51. What will happen if you consistently experience negative energy balance? 
A. Your body fat stores will shrink and you will lose weight. 
B. The amount of CCK in your bloodstream will increase and remain elevated until homeostasis is achieved. 
C. Your body fat cells will expand and multiply, and you will gain weight. 
D. You will experience leptin resistance.
Answer: 
52. Which of the following internal changes reliably predicts eating behavior? 
A. About thirty minutes before eating, there is a slight decrease in blood levels of insulin. 
B. Prior to eating, body temperature decreases slightly. 
C. About thirty minutes before eating, there is a slight decrease in blood levels of glucose. 
D. About thirty minutes before eating, there is a sharp decrease in blood levels of glucose.
Answer: 
53. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. During a meal, body temperature increases and metabolism decreases. 
B. During a meal, blood glucose levels return to normal before the food is actually digested and absorbed. 
C. The onset of eating behavior is typically triggered by a sharp increase in blood levels of insulin, followed by a sharp decrease in blood glucose levels. 
D. All of the above.
Answer: 
54. In his conditioning studies, Pavlov tried presenting a dog with a little bit of food every thirty minutes. After doing this repeatedly, what did Pavlov observe? 
A. Because no other signals were used, the dog failed to develop a conditioned response. 
B. The thirty-minute interval made no difference but the dog did become conditioned to salivate to the sight of Pavlov. 
C. The dog's desire to eat diminished, which Pavlov termed "sensory-specific satiety." 
D. The thirty-minute interval became a conditioned stimulus, triggering the conditioned response of salivation.
Answer: 
55. Jordan routinely eats an early lunch around 11:00 A.M.  Even if there's no clock in sight, Jordan can tell when it's almost 11:00 A.M. because he feels hungry and wants to eat. Which of the following explanations accounts for this? 
A. Just as set-point theory would predict, Jordan has established an 11 AM set-point for eating. 
B. Jordan has become classically conditioned so that the time of the day, 11 AM, is a conditioned stimulus (CS) for him, triggering internal bodily changes that increase his desire to eat. 
C. Jordan is experiencing the cafeteria diet effect. 
D. Positive energy balance and leptin rebound is occurring.
Answer: 
56. The idea that we are often motivated to eat because of the anticipated pleasure associated with consuming a particular food is termed: 
A. sensory-specific satiety. 
B. set-point theory 
C. the cafeteria diet effect. 
D. positive incentive value.
Answer: 
57. What of the following best defines satiation? 
A. The feeling of fullness and diminished desire to eat that accompanies eating a meal. 
B. The anticipated pleasure of consuming a particular food. 
C. Changes in metabolism to counteract overeating or undereating. 
D. The pre-eating drop in blood sugar levels.
Answer: 
58. Which of the following is TRUE regarding cholecystokinin (CCK)? 
A. CCK promotes satiation by slowing the rate at which the stomach empties. 
B. Blood levels of CCK are directly proportional to the amount adipose tissue a person has. 
C. Approximately 30 minutes before eating, blood levels of CCK decrease. 
D. CCK counteracts the effects of leptin.
Answer: 
59. Which of the following is a hormone that helps signal feelings of fullness when eating a meal? 
A. cholecystokinin (CCK) 
B. insulin 
C. corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) 
D. dopamine
Answer: 
60. After his third helping of apple pie and ice cream, Nathan feels quite full. His satiation is due, at least in part, to increased levels of the hormone: 
A. epinephrine. 
B. testosterone. 
C. cholecystokinin (CCK). 
D. serotonin.
Answer: 
61. Which of the following best describes sensory-specific satiety? 
A. When a person with bulimia experiences a food binge, high-calorie, easy-to-swallow foods are rapidly consumed. 
B. Simply chewing, tasting, or smelling an appealing food causes corticotropin-releasing hormone to be released, greatly increasing the desire to eat. 
C. As a particular food is consumed, the desire to continue eating that food decreases. 
D. As sweet, salty, or fatty foods are consumed, there is a surge in brain levels of dopamine.
Answer: 
62. Haley savored the wonderful smell and taste of the first Godiva chocolate that Connor offered her. And, the second Godiva chocolate was almost just as good.  But, when Connor offered her a third Godiva chocolate, Haley's desire to eat more of the chocolate had diminished, and she declined. Which of the following concepts best explains Haley's reduced desire to continue eating the chocolate? 
A. the cafeteria diet effect 
B. positive incentive value 
C. set-point theory 
D. sensory-specific satiety
Answer: 
63. In 1995, researcher Jeffrey Friedman and his colleagues discovered a new hormone, which they named leptin. Leptin is secreted by: 
A. the pancreas. 
B. adipose tissue. 
C. the amygdala. 
D. the adrenal gland.
Answer: 
64. The amount of leptin that is secreted into the bloodstream is directly correlated with: 
A. the degree of arousal in response to a fear-provoking stimulus. 
B. the amount of time that has elapsed since a person last ate. 
C. the amount of body fat a person has. 
D. the duration of aerobic exercise.
Answer: 
65. Sarah is 5'6" tall, weighs 143 pounds, and has a BMI of 23.1.  Christopher is 5'8" tall, weighs 148 pounds, and has a BMI of 22.5.  Andrew is 5'10" tall, weighs 192 pounds, and has a BMI of 27.6. Who has the highest leptin blood level? 
A. Andrew 
B. Sarah 
C. Christopher 
D. Without knowing when each person ate their last meal, it is impossible to tell.
Answer: 
66. The word leptin is derived from the Greek root word "leptos," which means: 
A. hungry 
B. fat 
C. sweet 
D. thin
Answer: 
67. Increased blood levels of leptin: 
A. indicate that negative energy balance is occurring. 
B. intensify the satiety-producing effects of CCK, decreasing food consumption. 
C. trigger extreme feelings of hunger. 
D. cause animals in the wild to gorge on whatever food is available.
Answer: 
68. The secretion of which of the following is directly correlated with the amount of body fat a person has? 
A. dopamine and glucose 
B. CCK 
C. leptin and insulin 
D. neuropeptide Y
Answer: 
69. Increased brain levels of leptin and insulin: 
A. are associated with sensory-specific satiety. 
B. promote reduced food intake and decreased fat stores. 
C. occur in response to negative energy balance. 
D. stimulate the pancreas to secrete CRH.
Answer: 
70. The receptor sites for leptin and insulin: 
A. are located in the same areas of the hypothalamus. 
B. are located primarily in muscle tissue. 
C. have yet to be identified, although evidence tentatively suggests that they are located in the lining of the stomach. 
D. are greatly reduced in people with anorexia or bulimia.
Answer: 
71. During the traditional holiday season from mid-November to early January, Jessica hosted three holiday gatherings and went to several parties. She also gained 9 pounds, increasing her normal weight of 142 pounds to 151 pounds. As described in the chapter, the increased calories and fat stores will trigger several internal changes, helping to re-establish Jessica's normal body weight. Of the following, which is NOT one of the internal changes that will promote weight loss? 
A. Increased blood levels of leptin and insulin. 
B. Increased neuropeptide Y (NPY) activity in the brain. 
C. Increased corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) activity in the brain. 
D. Increased BMR.
Answer: 
72. Which of the following is NOT one of the four chemical signals involved in the long-term regulation of body weight? 
A. neuropeptide Y 
B. corticotropin-releasing hormone 
C. leptin 
D. serotonin
Answer: 
73. In response to fasting, undereating, or dieting, fat cells shrink and weight loss occurs.  Which of the following internal changes occurs to promote eating behavior, weight gain, and restore a person's typical body weight? 
A. Increased corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) activity in the brain. 
B. Increased BMR. 
C. Increased blood levels of leptin and insulin. 
D. Increased neuropeptide Y (NPY) activity in the brain.
Answer: 
74. Increased brain levels of neuropeptide Y causes: 
A. increased eating behavior. 
B. decreased body metabolism. 
C. Both of the above. 
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: 
75. Increased brain activity of neuropeptide Y leads to _____, and decreased brain activity of corticotropin-releasing hormone leads to _____. 
A. weight gain; weight gain 
B. weight loss; weight loss 
C. weight gain; weight loss 
D. weight loss; weight gain
Answer: 
76. Ob/ob mice lack the ability to produce: 
A. CCK 
B. neuropeptide Y 
C. leptin 
D. serotonin
Answer: 
77. Ob/ob mice: 
A. have provided the first animal model with which to study anorexia nervosa. 
B. lack the direct thalamus-to-amygdala fear pathway. 
C. are obese yet they display many of the internal physiological characteristics of a starving animal. 
D. maintain perfect energy homeostasis even if underfed or overfed.
Answer: 
78. Which of the following restored normal metabolism, body temperature, immune functioning, and body weight in ob/ob mice? 
A. Supplemental leptin. 
B. Aerobic exercise on a treadmill. 
C. Blocking receptor sites for corticotropin-releasing hormone. 
D. Blocking receptor sites for dopamine.
Answer: 
79. According to set-point theory, the natural or optimal weight that the body maintains by increases or decreases in hunger and basal metabolic rate is called the: 
A. homeostatic weight. 
B. energy balance weight. 
C. basal metabolic weight. 
D. set-point weight.
Answer: 
80. Which of the following best describes the basic idea of set-point theory? 
A. People are consciously capable of choosing, or "setting," a particular weight level and easily maintaining it. 
B. The body is naturally "set" to maintain a particular weight by increasing or decreasing feeling of hunger and basal metabolic rate. 
C. Once you "set" your BMR to a higher level, it is possible to eat much more food without gaining weight. 
D. Once you establish and "set" CCK at a lower level, it is possible to eat much more food without gaining weight.
Answer: 
81. Which of the following observations seems to undermine the basic idea of set-point theory? 
A. Although laboratory mice and rats will overeat if given a variety of foods to eat, animals in the wild will only eat enough to maintain a normal body weight. 
B. Many people have a strong tendency to gain excessive weight as they get older. 
C. Even when people with anorexia are given medications that boost brain levels of serotonin, their symptoms persist. 
D. The prevalence of obesity is just as great in developing countries as in North America.
Answer: 
82. According to settling-point models of weight regulation: 
A. set-point weight becomes increasingly unstable with age. 
B. your body weight will stabilize around the point at which equilibrium is achieved between food consumption and energy expenditure. 
C. the level of leptin in the bloodstream increases until it "settles" at a genetically predetermined amount. 
D. BMR progressively increases with age until it "settles" at an optimal level.
Answer: 
83. What percentage of U.S. adults are overweight or obese? 
A. 20% 
B. 40% 
C. 60% 
D. 80%
Answer: 
84. According to a survey by the National Institutes of Health, approximately one out of _____ American women and one out of _____ American men are trying to lose weight. 
A. nine; twenty 
B. two; eight 
C. three; four 
D. twelve; fifteen
Answer: 
85. The prevalence of overweight and obese people: 
A. is lower in industrialized countries than in developing countries. 
B. is much higher in countries located close to the equator than it is in countries located in the northern latitudes. 
C. is higher among extraverted individuals than among introverted individuals. 
D. has rapidly increased in the United States since the 1970s.
Answer: 
86. Of the following countries, which has the lowest percentage of overweight people?  
A. China 
B. Australia 
C. Canada 
D. Germany
Answer: 
87. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
A. The percentage of U.S. adults who are overweight increases with age, reaching a peak in the fifth and sixth decades of life. 
B. Regardless of age group, more females than males are overweight. 
C. Among industrialized countries, there is very little variation in the percentage of overweight people. 
D. Genetics are responsible for approximately 75% of obesity cases in North America.
Answer: 
88. The body mass index: 
A. is a pseudoscientific indicator of eating disorders. 
B. uses a different scale for males and females. 
C. provides a single number reflecting a person's weight in relation to their height. 
D. indicates the rate at which energy for vital body functions is expended while a person is resting.
Answer: 
89. Adam has a BMI of 34, which means that he is: 
A. very slender because he expends significantly more calories on vital body functions. 
B. obese. 
C. seriously underweight. 
D. within the normal range for his height and weight.
Answer: 
90. Morgan has a BMI of 22, which means that she is: 
A. underweight 
B. in the healthy weight range. 
C. overweight, but not obese. 
D. obese.
Answer: 
91. Because of the wide variety of food selections at the Fortune Chef Chinese Buffet, Noah always eats more than he needs to at lunch. This phenomenon is termed: 
A. leptin resistance. 
B. the cafeteria diet effect. 
C. set-point theory. 
D. sensory-specific satiety.
Answer: 
92. As you're stretched out on the couch watching a late night rerun of Seinfeld, commercial after commercial comes on showing mouthwatering images of burgers, tacos, pizza, ice cream, and so on. These commercials are designed to heighten your anticipation of the pleasures of eating these foods, which is termed: 
A. sensory-specific satiety. 
B. positive incentive value. 
C. food cycling. 
D. sensory preloading.
Answer: 
93. Compared to 20 years ago: 
A. the average daily caloric intake of U.S. adults has increased by 7 percent or more. 
B. the average daily caloric intake of U.S. adults has decreased by about 5 percent. 
C. the number of overweight and obese people in the United States has decreased by about 6 percent. 
D. the percentage of obese people has decreased but the percentage of overweight people has increased.
Answer: 
94. To help reduce the amount of food he eats at dinner, Justin has a snack about ninety minutes or so before dinner.  Research has shown that: 
A. if the snack contains protein, it will greatly reduces the amount of food that will be eaten at the later meal. 
B. if the snack contains carbohydrates, it will greatly reduce the amount of food that will be eaten at the later meal. 
C.  if the snack contains some of the same food that will be eaten at the later meal, it will significantly reduce consumption.
D. having the snack simply added more calories on top of those consumed at the meal.
Answer: 
95. Who probably has the highest metabolic rate? 
A. Tyler, a 10-year-old boy 
B. Kayla, a 16-year-old girl 
C. Alexandra, a 22-year-old woman 
D. Luis, a 40-year-old man
Answer: 
96. Mark and Martha have normal weights for their age and height. If Martha is like most females, her basal metabolic rate is: 
A. identical to Mark's. 
B. higher than Mark's. 
C. lower than Mark's. 
D. susceptible to much greater fluctuations than Mark's.
Answer: 
97. Between birth and early adulthood there is: 
A. no decrease in BMR. 
B. a very slow decrease in BMR. 
C. a steep decline in BMR. 
D. a gradual increase in BMR.
Answer: 
98. Which of the following is FALSE regarding metabolism? 
A. Throughout the lifespan, females typically have a lower metabolic rate than do males. 
B. During adulthood, BMR gradually decreases by about 2 to 3 percent per decade. 
C. Your basal metabolic rates accounts for about two-thirds of your daily energy expenditure. 
D. Children have lower BMRs than adults.
Answer: 
99. Drew is in his early forties.  If he is typical of people his age, his basal metabolic rate (BMR) has _____ compared to when he was in his early twenties. 
A. increased sharply 
B. decreased gradually 
C. increased gradually 
D. decreased sharply
Answer: 
100. What percentage of American adults report that they NEVER exercise, play sports, or engage in active hobbies, like gardening, hiking, or fishing? 
A. 20% 
B. 40% 
C. 60% 
D. 80%
Answer: 
101. The prevalence of sedentary lifestyles: 
A. is greater among women than men. 
B. increases as people get older. 
C. Both a and b are true. 
D. None of the above are true.
Answer: 
102. How does the evolutionary perspective explain the observation that many wild animals overeat when food is available? 
A. Weaker but rapidly multiplying species tend to overeat, which makes them less agile but more vulnerable to larger predators, who reproduce more slowly. 
B. Overeating helps build energy reserves for times when food may be scarce or unavailable. 
C. Overeating promotes an insulating layer of fat that traps body heat and allows the species to survive in a wider range of cold climates. 
D. Species that engage in overeating have evolved so that they have high BMRs and do not hibernate, qualities that utilize the excess calories and promote survival.
Answer: 
103. According to the evolutionary perspective, what is the adaptive value of the cafeteria diet effect? 
A. A species that is able to consume a wide variety of foods can adapt to a wider range of environments, increasing the likelihood of survival. 
B. Should one food source become depleted, the ability to switch to another food promotes survival. 
C. Survival is promoted by being able to switch to foods that are not preferred by predators. 
D. Consuming a variety of foods with high positive incentive value promotes survival by ensuring that essential nutrients, vitamins, and minerals are obtained.
Answer: 
104. In the United States, approximately _____ deaths per year are due to health  problems caused by obesity. 
A. 3,000 
B. 30,000 
C. 300,000 
D. 3,000,000
Answer: 
105. Genetic susceptibility to obesity is likely due to: 
A. a common mutation in a single gene carried on the X chromosome. 
B. multiple genes on multiple chromosomes. 
C. the malfunction of the gene that controls insulin production. 
D. the presence of an ob/ob gene pair, which results in the inability to produce leptin.
Answer: 
106. The role of heredity and genetics in obesity is demonstrated by the fact that: 
A. some people are more susceptible to the positive incentive value of food than others. 
B. in about 80% of childhood obesity cases, the children's parents are also obese. 
C. obesity is more prevalent in some nations than others. 
D. people with a family history of obesity are two to three times more likely to become obese than people who do not have a family history of obesity.
Answer: 
107. Which of the following statements is the most accurate explanation of the role of genetics in obesity? 
A. Genes only indirectly contribute to obesity, in that a specific gene seems to be responsible for setting an individual's basal metabolic rate. 
B. Even in families in which two or more relatives are obese, the obesity is caused by environmental factors and lifestyle choices, not genetic factors. 
C. Genetics may predispose some people to becoming obese, but environmental factors, such as excessive calorie intake, are still required for obesity to occur. 
D. Almost all cases of obesity are caused by genetic factors.
Answer: 
108. Cross-cultural research on the prevalence of obesity has shown that: 
A. the rate of obesity is lowest in countries with established national health standards and public education. 
B. the rate of obesity is lowest in developed market economies, where there is abundant information about the importance of healthy eating and exercise. 
C. the rate of obesity is lowest in the least developed nations. 
D. obesity rates tend to drop as nations make the transition to a developed market economy.
Answer: 
109. Most people who are obese have ____ blood levels of leptin and ____ levels of leptin in the cerebrospinal fluid. 
A. high; high 
B. low; low 
C. low; high 
D. high; low
Answer: 
110. Leptin resistance is a condition: 
A. in a which person who is obese has high blood levels of leptin but it does not produce decreased food intake and increased BMR. 
B. in which a person with anorexia nervosa has high blood levels of leptin but still refuses to eat. 
C. that runs in families and is characterized by abnormally low levels of leptin. 
D. that is three times more common in women than men.
Answer: 
111. Twenty-five-year-old Heather was overweight.  After going on a diet, she successfully lost 15 pounds.  If Heather is typical of most people who lose weight, she will: 
A. maintain her new weight until she reaches her late thirties or early forties. 
B. probably lose an additional 5 to 8 pounds over the next year. 
C. regain the weight she lost in a matter of weeks or months. 
D. become anorexic.
Answer: 
112. By the time Austin reached his 25th birthday, he had a weight problem. Since then, Austin has been on several diets, each time losing some of his excess weight.  But as soon as Austin stops the diet, he regains the excess weight in a matter of weeks. The phenomenon that Austin, like so many dieters, is experiencing is called: 
A. leptin resistance 
B. dopamine resistance 
C. weight cycling 
D. adipose rebound
Answer: 
113. The Focus on Neuroscience feature described a PET scan study comparing normal weight and obese individuals. What did the study find? 
A. Obese people showed greater brain activation in response to food photos than normal weight individuals. 
B. Regardless of their weight status, females showed greater frontal lobe activation than males in response to food commercials. 
C. Body mass index was positively correlated with leptin and insulin activity in the hypothalamus. 
D. Obese individuals had significantly fewer dopamine receptors than normal weight individuals.
Answer: 
114. The Focus on Neuroscience feature described a PET scan study comparing normal weight and obese individuals. The findings of that study suggest that: 
A. mental imagery can produce significant increases in the BMR of obese individuals but not normal weight individuals. 
B. appetite suppressants activate completely different brain areas in normal weight versus obese individuals. 
C. exercise triggers the release of endorphins in normal weight individuals but not obese individuals. 
D. obese individuals might engage in compulsive or binge eating to stimulate the brain's reward system.
Answer: 
115. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in producing reinforcing feelings of pleasure and satisfaction? 
A. serotonin 
B. dopamine 
C. cholecystokinin 
D. neuropeptide Y
Answer: 
116. Which of the following is NOT one of the key defining features of anorexia nervosa? 
A. The person recognizes that he or she has an eating disorder. 
B. The person is intensely afraid of becoming overweight. 
C. The person has distorted perception about the size of his or her body. 
D. The person has a body weight that is 15 percent or more below normal.
Answer: 
117. What is the primary difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? 
A. The person with bulimia, but not anorexia, has binge-purge episodes. 
B. The person with bulimia, but not anorexia, will purge excessive food by self-induced vomiting or by misusing laxatives. 
C. The person with anorexia is very underweight, while the person with bulimia is of normal weight or even slightly overweight. 
D. The person with anorexia, but not bulimia, will use excessive exercise to burn off calories.
Answer: 
118. _____ is an eating disorder in which the individual refuses to maintain a minimally normal body weight, is extremely afraid of gaining weight or becoming fat, and has a distorted perception about the size of his or her body. 
A. Binge-eating disorder 
B. Anorexia nervosa 
C. Bulimia nervosa 
D. Leptin resistance
Answer: 
119. About four months ago, 16-year-old Amanda went on a drastic diet that caused her to drop from her normal weight of 120 pounds to less than 90 pounds. Although her weight is dangerously low, she continues to undereat because she thinks she looks fat.  Amanda suffers from: 
A. binge-eating disorder. 
B. obesity. 
C. bulimia nervosa. 
D. anorexia nervosa.
Answer: 
120. Chloe is 19 years old, and stands 5 feet, 6 inches tall.  She weighs 86 pounds, has a BMI of 13.9, and has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of  severe anorexia nervosa. Because of her anorexia, Chloe is likely to: 
A. develop a soft, fine body hair called lanugo. 
B. have abnormally high blood levels of leptin. 
C. have increased brain activity of serotonin. 
D. experience weight cycling.
Answer: 
121. Rebecca is 17 years old, and stands 5 feet, 7 inches tall. She weighs 86 pounds, has a BMI of 13.5, and has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of  severe anorexia nervosa. Which of the following symptoms is Rebecca likely to experience? 
A. Her blood levels of leptin will soar. 
B. Her menstrual cycle will stop. 
C. Numbness in her extremities. 
D. Tinnitus, or ringing in the ears.
Answer: 
122. Approximately _____ percent of people with anorexia nervosa die from starvation, suicide, or physical complications arising from the extreme weight loss. 
A. 2 
B. 10 
C. 25 
D. 50
Answer: 
123. _____ is an eating disorder in which a normal weight person engages in binge eating and then purges the excessive food consumption by self-induced vomiting or, less often, by taking laxatives or enemas. 
A. Cholecystokinin 
B. Anorexia nervosa 
C. Binge-eating disorder 
D. Bulimia nervosa
Answer: 
124. Lana is about the right weight for her age and height.  Nevertheless, she is so preoccupied by her fear of becoming overweight that whenever she goes on an eating binge, she purges the excessive food consumption by self-induced vomiting.  It is likely that Lana suffers from: 
A. anorexia nervosa. 
B. bulimia nervosa. 
C. binge-eating disorder. 
D. obesity.
Answer: 
125. Paige has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.  Which of the following is a key characteristic of her eating disorder? 
A. loss of appetite 
B. being 15 to 20 percent below her ideal body weight 
C. binge eating and purging by self-induced vomiting 
D. being unaware of the fact that she has an eating disorder
Answer: 
126. For the past year, Logan has binged on food two or three times a week. During these private but out-of-control eating episodes, he can consume 30,000 calories or more. Although he almost always feels ashamed afterwards, Logan doesn't purge the excessive food or fast to compensate for excessive food intake. His BMI has gone from 23.7 to 29.6.  Logan is displaying the symptoms of: 
A. binge-eating disorder. 
B. anorexia nervosa, restricting subtype. 
C. bulimia nervosa. 
D. anorexia nervosa, binge-purge subtype.
Answer: 
127. Ethan is struggling to make enough money to pay his rent and buy food. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Ethan is attempting to meet his: 
A. self-fulfillment needs. 
B. psychological needs. 
C. homeostatic needs. 
D. basic needs.
Answer: 
128. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? 
A. the need for safety, food, and shelter 
B. the need to belong and have intimate love and friendship relationships 
C. the need to become rich, famous, and powerful 
D. the need to become self-actualized
Answer: 
129. Which of the following represents the top level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? 
A. physiological needs 
B. safety needs 
C. belongingness and love needs 
D. the need for self-actualization
Answer: 
130. According to Maslow's humanistic theory of motivation, what must people do before they can strive for the realization of their personal potential and creative abilities? 
A. achieve homeostasis 
B. recognize and deal with unconscious psychological conflicts 
C. satisfy basic needs and psychological needs 
D. learn to suppress their basic needs, such as for food and water
Answer: 
131. According to Abraham Maslow, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of self-actualized people?
A. They have an accurate perception of themselves, others, and external reality. 
B. They refuse to conform to conventional rules and expectations. 
C. They have a strong need for privacy and independence. 
D. They appreciate the simple pleasures of life.
Answer: 
132. According to Maslow's research, self-actualized people are capable of having frequent peak experiences. What did Maslow mean by that?
A. Self-actualized people commonly have moments of intense ecstasy, wonder, or awe. 
B. Self-actualized people are motivated by a profound sense of ethics or responsibility. 
C. Self-actualized people have an intense need to be surrounded by other people. 
D. Self-actualized people often have very exaggerated views of their abilities and talents.
Answer: 
133. Which of the following is a valid criticism of Maslow's theory of motivation? 
A. Maslow relied too heavily on experimental evidence. 
B. The majority of people do not achieve self-actualization. 
C. Maslow only observed children in formulating his theory. 
D. Maslow placed too much emphasis on psychological disorders.
Answer: 
134. What important contribution was made by Abraham Maslow to the study of motivation? 
A. Maslow was the first psychologist to study motivation and emotion in nonhuman animals. 
B. Maslow's distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation helped psychologists recognize the importance of drives, incentives, and arousal in motivation. 
C. Self-actualization is recognized by most motivation researchers as one of the most basic of all human motives. 
D. Because of Maslow's influence, greater attention was paid to psychological needs and the motivation and development of people who were psychologically healthy.
Answer: 
135. Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of Maslow's theory of motivation? 
A. The concept of self-actualization is vague, and almost impossible to define in such a way that it could be empirically measured or tested. 
B. The idea that basic needs must be satisfied before people can be motivated to satisfy needs that are higher in the hierarchy of needs has not been supported by empirical research. 
C. Maslow placed too much emphasis on psychological motives, ignoring instincts, drives, and physiological needs. 
D. The notion of self-actualization was derived from a limited sample that included only historical figures and Maslow's personal acquaintances.
Answer: 
136. The premise of _____ is that optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met. 
A. self-determination theory 
B. self-enhancement theory 
C. the hierarchy of needs 
D. incentive theories
Answer: 
137. What are the three fundamental needs identified by Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory of motivation? 
A. self-efficacy, self-enhancement, and self-determination 
B. drives, incentives, and arousal 
C. self-fulfillment needs, psychological needs, and physiological needs 
D. autonomy, competence, and relatedness
Answer: 
138. Self-determination theory was developed by: 
A. Abraham Maslow. 
B. Edward Deci and Richard Ryan. 
C. William James and Carl Lange. 
D. Richard Lazarus and Paul Ekman.
Answer: 
139. The need to feel that your activities are self-chosen and self-endorsed defines _____, which is a fundamental motive in _____. 
A. autonomy; the hierarchy of needs 
B. autonomy; self-determination theory 
C. self-efficacy; achievement motivation 
D. competence; achievement motivation
Answer: 
140. Behavior driven by rewards, rules, and responsibilities is to _____ as behavior motivated by enjoyment, satisfaction, or challenge is to _____. 
A. extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation 
B. basic needs; self-fulfillment needs 
C. intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation 
D. psychological needs; self-fulfillment needs
Answer: 
141. Olivia is taking advanced placement biology in high school because she loves science and is fascinated by biology. Jacob is taking advanced placement biology in high school because his guidance counselor told him he had to if he intended to apply to a pre-med program at a competitive university.  Jacob is motivated by _____, while Olivia is motivated by _____. 
A. basic needs; self-actualization 
B. extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation 
C. a drive; sensation-seeking 
D. competence; autonomy
Answer: 
142. Which of the following is NOT a basic need in Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory? 
A. competence 
B. relatedness 
C. arousal 
D. autonomy
Answer: 
143. According to self-determination theory, the person who has satisfied her competence, autonomy, and relatedness needs will: 
A. achieve a state of psychological homeostasis. 
B. become self-actualized. 
C. internalize external motivators as part of her identity and values. 
D. seek to fulfill her esteem needs.
Answer: 
144. If a person's basic psychological needs are frustrated, self-determination theory predicts that he or she will: 
A. be unable to address "higher" needs and motives, such as psychological needs and self-fulfillment needs. 
B. compensate with substitute needs or with defensive or maladaptive behaviors. 
C. score in the below-average range on the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). 
D. experience an overall decline in achievement and competence motivation.
Answer: 
145. Kevin was abandoned as an infant and raised in a series of foster homes, some of them abusive, and as a young adult, he feels lonely and isolated much of the time. Self-determination theory would predict that: 
A. Kevin will need to satisfy physiological and safety needs before he will be capable of fulfilling his belongingness and love needs. 
B. because Kevin's need for relatedness was frustrated, he will focus on his autonomy needs, even though his pursuit of autonomy results in loneliness and isolation. 
C. because Kevin's need for relatedness has not been satisfied, he may compensate by seeking the approval of others or by pursuing substitute goals, such as achieving wealth. 
D. Kevin is likely to internalize and integrate external motivators as part of his own value system.
Answer: 
146. Of the theories of motivation that are discussed in your textbook, Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory has the MOST in common with: 
A. arousal theory. 
B. incentive theories. 
C. drive theories. 
D. Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
Answer: 
147. Motivated behavior that is directed toward being capable and exercising control in a situation is called: 
A. self-efficacy. 
B. achievement motivation. 
C. competence motivation. 
D. extrinsic motivation.
Answer: 
148. Mark signed up for piano lessons to prove to himself that he could successfully master the challenge of learning to play the piano. What type of motivation is Mark displaying in this situation? 
A. sensation seeking 
B. achievement motivation 
C. competence motivation 
D. arousal motivation
Answer: 
149. Motivated behavior directed toward excelling, succeeding, or outperforming others at some task is called: 
A. curiosity. 
B. achievement motivation. 
C. competence motivation. 
D. extrinsic motivation.
Answer: 
150. Hans bought a chess software program and practices every day because he is highly motivated to become the top player on his college chess team. Hans's behavior and goal reflect a high level of: 
A. achievement motivation. 
B. curiosity. 
C. sensation seeking. 
D. competence motivation.
Answer: 
151. Morris is shown a series of pictures and asked to tell a story about each picture. Morris's stories are then coded in terms of achievement themes. What test was Morris given? 
A. the Thematic Apperception Test 
B. the McClelland Achievement Orientation Profile 
C. the Rorschach 
D. the WAIS
Answer: 
152. When Yuet-Ping went for career counseling she was given the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). Her score on this test is most likely to reveal her level of: 
A. emotionality. 
B. achievement motivation. 
C. curiosity. 
D. intelligence.
Answer: 
153. Which of the following psychologists are associated with research on achievement motivation and the Thematic Apperception Test? 
A. William James, Walter Cannon, and Charles Darwin. 
B. Abraham Maslow. 
C. David McClelland, Henry Murray, and Christiana Morgan. 
D. Edward Deci and Richard Ryan.
Answer: 
154. Research studies discussed in the text indicated that measures of achievement motivation were correlated with all of the following EXCEPT: 
A. productivity and worker output. 
B. relationship satisfaction. 
C. job performance. 
D. academic success.
Answer: 
155. People with a high level of achievement motivation: 
A. expend their greatest efforts when faced with very easy tasks. 
B. tend to work best in groups, as they lack the ability to work independently. 
C. tend to explain their success as being due to external factors or luck. 
D. have the capacity to delay gratification in order to achieve their goals.
Answer: 
156. In individualistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to emphasize: 
A. personal success, especially in competitive tasks. 
B. social success, especially with members of the preferred sex. 
C. making family members proud of you, especially your parents. 
D. success that enhances the status or well-being of your social group.
Answer: 
157. Which of the following is the BEST example of how achievement motivation might be expressed in a collectivistic culture? 
A. learning how to play a musical instrument 
B. receiving an award as the year's top-performing salesperson 
C. making family members proud by gaining admission to a top university 
D. delaying gratification in order to achieve a long-term goal
Answer: 
158. Which of the following is the BEST example of how achievement motivation might be expressed in an individualistic culture? 
A. celebrating a 50th wedding anniversary 
B. receiving an award as the year's top-performing salesperson 
C. making family members proud by gaining admission to a top university 
D. delaying gratification in order to achieve a long-term goal
Answer: 
159. Compared to individualistic cultures, the expression of achievement motivation in collectivistic cultures: 
A. is suppressed by the government. 
B. emphasizes the recognition of the individual who has accomplished the achievement. 
C. is motivated by the desire to promote the status or well-being of the members of the person's social group. 
D. is only encouraged in work settings.
Answer: 
160. Some advertisements claim that subliminal tapes will quickly and easily produce changes in motivation, learning ability, attitudes, and creativity. According to your textbook:
A. there is no scientific support for the claims made for subliminal self-help tapes. 
B. because university and college bookstores sell subliminal self-help tapes, they probably do improve study skills. 
C. all these claims have been supported by scientific evidence. 
D. subliminal self-help tapes are effective, but only if they are listened to for 25 hours or longer.
Answer: 
161. According to your textbook, subliminal self-help tapes:
A. contain clearly audible messages that give advice on how to improve one's life. 
B. contain messages that are below one's level of subjective awareness. 
C. contain the sounds of ocean waves or relaxing music that are below one's level of subjective awareness. 
D. contain audible messages that are recorded backward.
Answer: 
162. In a study on the effectiveness of subliminal self-help tapes, college students were assigned to different groups. One group listened to subliminal self-help tapes designed to improve study habits and pass exams. A second group listened to fake subliminal tapes. A third group didn't listen to any tapes. When the groups were compared on their final exam score and semester grade point average, what results were found? 
A. The students who listened to the subliminal tapes scored significantly higher than the other two groups. 
B. The students who did not listen to any tapes scored significantly lower than the other two groups. 
C. The students who listened to the fake subliminal tapes scored significantly higher than the students who listened to the real subliminal tapes. 
D. There were no significant differences among the three groups.
Answer: 
163. _____ is a distinct psychological state that involves subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioral or expressive response. 
A. Motivation 
B. Emotion 
C. Meditation 
D. Self-actualization
Answer: 
164. Emotion is to _____ as mood is to _____. 
A. intense and short lived; general, pervasive, and longer lasting 
B. physiologically arousing; psychologically depressing 
C. general, pervasive, and longer lasting; intense and short lived 
D. psychologically arousing; physiologically depressing
Answer: 
165. Ricardo has been feeling gloomy and generally discontented ever since the semester ended two weeks ago. When he received his transcript in the mail and discovered that the lowest grade he got was a B+ he felt elated and overjoyed. Ricardo's two states (pervasive gloominess and sudden intense joy) illustrate the difference between _____ and _____. 
A. motivation; emotion 
B. psychological states; physiological states 
C. moods; emotions 
D. the James-Lange Theory; the Cannon-Bard Theory
Answer: 
166. Emotion is a psychological state involving a number of distinct components. Which of the following is NOT one of those components? 
A. subjective experience 
B. physical arousal 
C. a behavioral or expressive response 
D. homeostasis
Answer: 
167. Your younger brother used your new computer and somehow managed to permanently erase all your personal files, including one containing a ten-page term paper due tomorrow! According to the text, the anger you now feel involves: 
A. a subjective conscious state. 
B. physical changes. 
C. behavioral or expressive responses. 
D. all of the above.
Answer: 
168. If you put money in a vending machine for a second time without getting either a candy bar or your money returned, you will probably: 
A. experience a subjective conscious state that you may label as "frustration" or "anger." 
B. express your emotion in some sort of behavior, such as swearing, banging the machine, or complaining to someone. 
C. experience physiological arousal. 
D. respond in all of the above ways.
Answer: 
169. Contemporary psychologists generally think that emotions: 
A. are disruptive responses that interfere with rational thought. 
B. tend to lead people to pursue inappropriate or counter-productive goals. 
C. are essential to successful living, helping us choose appropriate goals and make good choices and decisions. 
D. are only important because of their impact on close relationships.
Answer: 
170. _____ shape our decisions by helping us choose which goal to pursue and how strongly to pursue it. 
A. Emotions 
B. Moods 
C. Neuropeptides 
D. Instincts
Answer: 
171. People who have superior mental abilities yet make poor decisions are said to lack: 
A. self-efficacy. 
B. drive. 
C. emotional intelligence. 
D. interpersonal engagement.
Answer: 
172. Matthew is extremely intelligent, and is a gifted statistician, yet he has few friends and rarely holds a job for more than six months, because he constantly alienates his co-workers and supervisors. Matthew probably lacks: 
A. achievement motivation. 
B. competence motivation. 
C. basic emotions. 
D. emotional intelligence.
Answer: 
173. Janice has trouble holding down a job, and can't seem to manage her finances. She makes friends quickly but rarely forms long-lasting friendships or other relationships because she is so difficult to get along with. She complains about her bad luck in men - all she ever meets, she claims, are "losers."  From this description, it's safe to say that Janice probably is low in: 
A. emotional intelligence. 
B. competence motivation. 
C. autonomy. 
D. sensation-seeking.
Answer: 
174. Who was the first scientist to systematically study emotional expression, including the facial expressions and body language used to express different emotions? 
A. Paul Ekman 
B. Charles Darwin 
C. Joseph LeDoux 
D. Abraham Maslow
Answer: 
175. According to Charles Darwin, emotions: 
A. are a primitive form of thinking that should not be allowed to influence decision-making by modern humans. 
B. reflect evolutionary adaptations that help people and animals survive and reproduce. 
C. can only be experienced and expressed by humans; nonhuman animals lack the capacity to feel or express emotion. 
D. are merely instinctual responses that play no role in survival or reproduction.
Answer: 
176. Contemporary evolutionary psychologists tend to view emotions as: 
A. likely to disrupt goal-directed behavior, distracting people from their long-term goals and causing them to make poor decisions. 
B. primitive instinctual responses that were adaptive in prehistoric times but tend to be maladaptive in modern times. 
C. less important than motives and goals. 
D. the product of evolution, that help people adapt to challenges in their environments.
Answer: 
177. Which of the following is an example of an emotion that represents an evolutionary adaptation to problems of survival or reproduction? 
A. Tom feels jealous and angry when another man calls up his girlfriend and asks her for a date. 
B. Briana feels fearful and anxious when her 3-year-old climbs to the top of the jungle gym at the playground. 
C. Jonathan wrinkles up his nose in disgust when he opens a bowl of leftover tuna fish salad that's been sitting in the refrigerator for the last month. 
D. All of the above.
Answer: 
178. People who experience very intense positive emotions: 
A. almost never experience negative emotions. 
B. also tend to experience very intense negative emotions. 
C. tend to be lower in competency motivation but higher in relatedness motivation. 
D. have been shown in contemporary brain-imaging studies to have high activity in the amygdala and thalamus.
Answer: 
179. Emotionally expressive people _____ than people who are more inhibited in their expression of emotions. 
A. tend to be better liked 
B. tend to be more disliked 
C. are more likely to have interpersonal problems 
D. are more likely to be self-actualized
Answer: 
180. Mark tends to be very emotionally expressive. Compared to people who are more inhibited in their expression of emotion, it is probable that Mark: 
A. is high in relatedness and competence, but low in autonomy. 
B. has frequent peak experiences. 
C. is well liked by other people. 
D. is low in achievement motivation.
Answer: 
181. In terms of emotional experience, 
A. women experience more frequent and more intense emotions than men. 
B. men experience more frequent and more intense emotions than women. 
C. men and women are very similar in their experience of emotions. 
D. men experience emotion more frequently but women experience emotions more intensely.
Answer: 
182. Emotionally, how do men and women differ? 
A. Women are more emotionally expressive than men. 
B. Men are more emotionally expressive than women. 
C. Men experience emotions more intensely than women. 
D. Women experience emotions more intensely than men.
Answer: 
183. As compared to women, men are: 
A. more expressive. 
B. more likely to mask their emotions. 
C. less confident in their ability to express their emotions. 
D. more apt to express negative emotions.
Answer: 
184. Basic emotions are: 
A. universal and biologically determined, the products of evolution. 
B. found only in young children. 
C. emotions that have only one of the three characteristics of emotions. 
D. culturally determined emotions that are specific for that culture.
Answer: 
185. Dr. Davis describes his research as focusing on a limited number of universal emotions that are biologically determined products of evolution. Dr. Davis's research involves: 
A. emotion blends. 
B. dopamine pathways in the brain. 
C. basic emotions. 
D. mixed emotions.
Answer: 
186. Most emotion researchers agree that the basic emotions are: 
A. greed, lust, spite, and revenge. 
B. sadness, happiness, disgust, fear, surprise, and anger. 
C. regret, fear, guilt, contentment, rage, resentment, pity, and joy. 
D. pleasure, displeasure, arousal, and serenity.
Answer: 
187. Following the breakup of her relationship with her boyfriend, Rosa experienced a combination of relief, anger, jealousy, nostalgia, and depression. Rosa's experience illustrates: 
A. basic emotions only. 
B. mixed emotions. 
C. the facial feedback hypothesis. 
D. interpersonal disengagement.
Answer: 
188. When his boss yelled at him and called him lazy and incompetent just because he was five minutes late for work, Joshua simultaneously felt embarrassment, guilt, anger, shame, and anxiety. Joshua experienced: 
A. homeostasis. 
B. basic emotions only. 
C. a blend of emotions. 
D. activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer: 
189. The two most basic dimensions of emotion are _____ and _____. 
A. pleasantness; arousal 
B. interdependent; interpersonal 
C. stability; instability 
D. good emotions; bad emotions
Answer: 
190. Cross-cultural researchers have found that different cultures arrange emotions: 
A. in very similar ways. 
B. in very dissimilar ways. 
C. along four dimensions instead of two. 
D. along six dimensions instead of two.
Answer: 
191. Because researchers have found that different cultures arrange and describe emotions in very similar ways, many psychologists believe that: 
A. emotions are influenced by cultural factors. 
B. emotions are universal. 
C. blended emotions are a product of our common evolutionary past but basic emotions are influenced by culture. 
D. mixed emotions are a product of our common evolutionary past but basic emotions are influenced by culture.
Answer: 
192. Compared to individualistic cultures, researchers have found that in Japan, a collectivistic culture: 
A. only basic emotions are experienced. 
B. almost all emotions are experienced with a much lower degree of arousal. 
C. almost all emotions are experienced with a much higher degree of arousal. 
D. an important aspect of emotional experience is the degree to which an emotion results from interaction with other people.
Answer: 
193. Cross-cultural researchers have found that Japanese and other collectivistic cultures added a third emotional dimension, called _____, to the two basic emotional dimensions of pleasantness and arousal. 
A. interdependent attachment 
B. interpersonal engagement 
C. independent attachment 
D. collectivist engagement
Answer: 
194. The term interpersonal engagement refers to: 
A. a measure of relationship satisfaction used in rating emotional intelligence. 
B. a measure of involvement with other people that is used to assess "relatedness" in self-determination theory. 
C. the degree to which an emotion is experienced as positive or negative. 
D. an emotion dimension reflecting the degree to which emotions involve other people.
Answer: 
195. Social context and relationships are an especially important part of private emotional experience in: 
A. individualistic countries like the United States and Canada. 
B. collectivistic countries like Japan. 
C. rural areas as opposed to urban areas or cities. 
D. urban areas or cities as opposed to rural areas.
Answer: 
196. Amae is: 
A. a chemical present in many foods that has been shown to increase appetite and decrease satiation. 
B. a word that roughly translates as "resentful anger" in Japanese and Korean. 
C. a socially-engaged emotion in Japan, meaning the sense of being unconditionally loved and cared for by another person. 
D. a word that means "
Answer: 
197. When Jana took her first driving lesson, she experienced a number of physiological reactions, such as a racing heart, sweaty palms, and tension in her muscles. These physiological reactions involved the activation of her _____ nervous system. 
A. somatic 
B. sympathetic 
C. parasympathetic 
D. skeletal 
Answer: 
198. Walking home late at night after watching a scary movie at a friend's house, Ashley suddenly hears a strange, shrill noise that almost sounds like a distant scream. Her heartbeat and blood pressure increase, her muscles tense, her mouth goes dry, and she begins to perspire. Ashley is experiencing the _____ component of emotion that is due to the activation of her _____. 
A. psychological; endocrine system 
B. physiological; sympathetic nervous system 
C. subjective; parasympathetic nervous system 
D. expressive; autonomic nervous system 
Answer: 
199. In studies investigating the physiological components of emotion, researchers have found: 
A. that the same pattern of physiological changes occurs for both positive and negative emotions. 
B. that anger produces a marked increase in skin temperature whereas fear produces a decrease in skin temperature. 
C. significant cross-cultural differences in patterns of physiological arousal for positive and negative emotions. 
D. that anger produces a dramatic increase in heartbeat whereas fear produces a marked decrease in heart rate. 
Answer: 
200. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between emotions and physiological arousal? 
A. Different physiological arousal patterns have been found for different emotions. 
B. Most emotions have the same physiological arousal pattern since the arousal is based upon activation of the sympathetic nervous system. 
C. Different physiological arousal patterns are seen with negative emotions but not with positive emotions. 
D. Positive emotions have more intense physiological arousal patterns than do negative emotions. 
Answer: 
201. When Kayla applied for a job as a security guard, she was asked whether she had a criminal record or if she had ever stolen anything from an employer or workplace. She was also told that she would be given a polygraph test. Kayla's potential employer should be aware that: 
A. the polygraph test will reliably determine if Kayla is lying or being deceptive. 
B. it is possible that Kayla could be judged guilty of lying even if she is telling the truth. 
C. polygraph tests can determine the difference between anxiety due to lying and anxiety due to nervousness. 
D. polygraph tests are not 100% accurate, but they have a very low error rate. 
Answer: 
202. Which of the following statements about the polygraph, or lie detector, is FALSE? 
A. It measures a few specific indicators of physiological arousal, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. 
B. It does not actually detect lies. 
C. It is based on the idea that people will react emotionally, and with increased arousal, when lying in response to incriminating questions. 
D. It can distinguish among anxiety, guilt, fear, and anger. 
Answer: 
203. The polygraph is: 
A. an instrument that measures a few specific indicators of physiological arousal, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. 
B. extremely accurate in determining if a person is lying. 
C. an instrument that measures the occurrence of the P300 brain-wave. 
D. accurate in distinguishing between the emotional reaction of anxiety versus the emotional reaction of guilt. 
Answer: 
204. Polygraphs, or lie detectors: 
A. detect lies. 
B. measure arousal. 
C. measure all physiological indicators of emotion. 
D. accurately reflect the differences among different emotions. 
Answer: 
205. Many studies have shown that the use of lie detectors can result in a high rate of "false positives."  This means that: 
A. people who lie ("false") are "positively" identified. 
B. people who lie are judged to be telling the truth. 
C. innocent people are judged to be lying. 
D. uncertified polygraph examiners will falsify the report to produce positive information. 
Answer: 
206. Jeremy was required to take a lie detector test before he could be hired at the bank. Although Jeremy told the truth, the person administering the test said that Jeremy was lying. Because Jeremy supposedly failed the lie detector test, he did not get the job with the bank. Jeremy was the victim of: 
A. a highly unlikely event, since polygraphs are very accurate. 
B. an incorrect judgment called a "false positive." 
C. an incorrect judgment called a "true negative." 
D. a malicious plot to keep him from getting the bank job. 
Answer: 
207. Microexpressions are: 
A. vocal expressions, such as "um" and "uh huh," which are not really words but nevertheless communicate emotion. 
B. words or verbal messages presented subliminally, meaning below the threshold of conscious perception. 
C. fleeting facial expression that last no longer than 1/25th of a second. 
D. minute nonverbal cues expressed through body language but not through facial expressions. 
Answer: 
208. Based on the discussion in your textbook, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of deception or lying? 
A. microexpressions 
B. voice pattern analysis 
C. increased heart rate and other types of physiological arousal 
D. beta brain waves 
Answer: 
209. The term brain fingerprinting refers to: 
A. a technique that uses the EEG to detect a particular brain wave response that indicates if information is familiar or distinctive. 
B. the measurement of the distinctive pattern of folds and wrinkles in an individual's cerebral cortex. 
C. a pseudoscience based on mapping the magnetic pulses from a person's skull. 
D. the use of MRI to measure the distinctive shape and size of particular brain structures, including the amygdala, thalamus, and frontal lobes. 
Answer: 
210. A P300 wave is: 
A. a distinctive sound frequency that occurs in the voice of someone who is intentionally being deceptive. 
B. a brief but distinctive heartbeat patterns that occurs when a person is lying. 
C. a distinctive brain wave that is emitted when a person perceives a stimulus that is distinctive in some way. 
D. a pattern of physiological responses shown on the print-out of a polygraph report that indicates deception. 
Answer: 
211. The use of brain fingerprinting in criminal and other investigations: 
A. is widespread. 
B. is outlawed in most states because of its high error rate. 
C. is still controversial, and not widespread. 
D. has been ruled as admissible as evidence by the U. S. Supreme Court. 
Answer: 
212. Which brain structure is activated when people view threatening or fearful faces? 
A. the amygdala 
B. the pons 
C. the cerebellum 
D. the temporal lobe 
Answer: 
213. Rats with a damaged amygdala: 
A. will eat anything you feed them, never becoming satiated. 
B. overproduce leptin and become extremely lean, despite eating several times their normal amount of calories daily. 
C. cannot acquire a classically conditioned fear response. 
D. become extremely aggressive, often attacking their own offspring or littermates. 
Answer: 
214. Neuroscientist Joseph LeDoux is known for discovering and describing: 
A. receptor sites in the hypothalamus for insulin, leptin, and CCK. 
B. distinct neural circuits for sadness, happiness, anger, and fear. 
C. the P300 wave, used in lie detection. 
D. the direct and indirect fear pathways in the brain, both involving the amygdala. 
Answer: 
215. Which neural pathway carries crude information about a threatening stimulus and activates a rapid instinctual "alarm" response? 
A. the thalamus_hypothalamus_visual cortex pathway 
B. the thalamus_amygdala pathway 
C. the cerebral cortex_thalamus_amygdala pathway 
D. the thalamus_visual cortex pathway 
Answer: 
216. Your textbook discusses the neural pathways responsible for instinctual fear responses that occur when you perceive a threatening stimulus.  Why does this instinctual fear response take place before you have time to consciously evaluate the stimulus? 
A. Because the fear response is classically conditioned, and classically conditioned responses cannot be consciously experienced. 
B. Because the direct thalamus_amygdala route bypasses the cerebral cortex, where conscious recognition takes place. 
C. Because the direct thalamus_hypothalamus route activates the parasympathetic nervous system, triggering the fight-or-flight response. 
D. Because the instinctual fear response is a spinal reflex, and does not involve conscious thought. 
Answer: 
217. Brandon was waiting in line to make a deposit at the bank when he heard the man in front of him say softly to the teller, "Just give me the money now."  At first Brandon thought the man was just impatient, but then he realized that the guy was a bank robber.  Brandon felt afraid and started backing up slowly, looking for cover.  Brandon's emotional response probably resulted from neural impulses that 
A. traveled along the indirect pathway, via the thalamus_cortex_amygdala. 
B. traveled along the direct pathway, via the thalamus_amygdala. 
C. directly activated his hypothalamus and medulla. 
D. directly activated his pituitary gland and visual cortex. 
Answer: 
218. In the indirect fear pathway described by Joseph LeDoux, what role is played by the cortex? 
A. Determining whether the thalamus is responding appropriately to the threatening stimulus. 
B. None, because the cortex is not involved in the indirect fear pathway. 
C. Activating the pituitary gland. 
D. Interpreting a stimulus and determining whether it is a threat. 
Answer: 
219. Which process best accounts for the dual fear pathway identified by neuroscientist Joseph LeDoux? 
A. motivation 
B. evolution 
C. cognitive-mediation 
D. self-determination 
Answer: 
220. The Focus on Neuroscience described a PET scan study investigating brain activation when participants recalled different kinds of emotional memories.  What were the results of this study? 
A. No matter what emotion was experienced, a single brain area activated, indicating that there is a single emotion center in the brain. 
B. The hypothalamus activated in memories involving positive emotions, and only the amygdala activated in memories involving negative emotions. 
C. Each of the emotions produced a different pattern of brain activation, indicating that each emotion involved distinct neural circuits in the brain. 
D. Distinct gender differences were found: women processed emotions in both cerebral hemispheres, while men processed emotions in the left hemisphere only. 
Answer: 
221. The Focus on Neuroscience used PET scans to study brain areas that were activated when participants recalled emotional memories. Activation of which brain area indicated that the body's peripheral nervous system was also involved in feeling an emotion? 
A. the somatosensory cortex 
B. the hippocampus 
C. the visual cortex 
D. the amygdala 
Answer: 
222. After Angela received her bachelor's degree, she gave her friends and family members a big hug and kiss. Angela is displaying the _____ component of her emotional state. 
A. physiological 
B. subjective 
C. cognitive 
D. expressive or behavioral 
Answer: 
223. Which two scientists are known for carefully analyzing and classifying facial expressions? 
A. Walter Cannon and Richard Lazarus 
B. William James and James Lange 
C. Edward Deci and Richard Ryan 
D. Charles Darwin and Paul Ekman 
Answer: 
224. Paul Ekman, a leading researcher in the expression of emotion, has estimated that the human face is capable of: 
A. creating only a few basic expressions. 
B. expressing basic emotions only and not mixed emotions. 
C. creating over 7,000 different expressions. 
D. approximately 200 different expressions. 
Answer: 
225. When people are shown two pictures of a person and asked to distinguish between the "true" smile of joy and the smile that is masking negative emotions, they: 
A. are usually unable to do so and guess randomly. 
B. can easily distinguish between the two. 
C. usually think the "fake" smile is the "true" smile. 
D. usually think the "true" smile is the "fake" smile. 
Answer: 
226. Dr. Allard coded different facial expressions by carefully analyzing which facial muscles are involved in producing different emotions such as disgust, surprise, sadness, anger, happiness, and fear. If Dr. Allard tests infants under one year of age, he is likely to conclude that: 
A. infants learn to express emotions by imitating the expressions of those around them. 
B. facial expressions for basic emotions are innate, or inborn, rather than learned. 
C. infants under one year of age express only two emotions, rage and joy. 
D. all the known emotions are present at birth. 
Answer: 
227. One-year-old Samuel was born blind and deaf. According to research presented in the text, Samuel: 
A. will not be able to express the basic emotions because of his disabilities. 
B. will display all the known emotions during his first year. 
C. will express emotions such as joy, anger, and pleasure using the same facial expressions as other children. 
D. will display only the social smile but will not be able to express any of the other basic emotions. 
Answer: 
228. When shown photographs of facial expressions of basic emotions, people from 21 different countries: 
A. were able to accurately identify each of the emotions being expressed. 
B. were only able to accurately identify the facial expressions for fear and disgust. 
C. were able to accurately identify happiness, surprise, and disgust, but not anger, fear, or sadness. 
D. varied greatly in their ability to correctly identify the different emotions being expressed. 
Answer: 
229. Which of the following forms of emotional expression is NOT universal and is LEAST likely to be recognized by members of different cultures? 
A. nonverbal vocal cues, such as tone of voice 
B. facial expressions 
C. emblems 
D. the sequence of physical movements indicating embarrassment 
Answer: 
230. In the pizza restaurant where Aaron is having lunch, a talk show is playing on the TV but the volume is turned down so that Aaron can't hear any of the dialogue. Aaron watches the man being interviewed on the TV show look to the side, smile sheepishly, move his head down and to the left, shift his gaze and smile sheepishly again, and then look off to the side. Although Aaron has no idea what topic is being discussed on the talk show, he can accurately interpret the man's body language as expressing: 
A. sadness. 
B. embarrassment. 
C. suppressed anger. 
D. disagreement with the talk show host's statements. 
Answer: 
231. You take a seat on a crowded bus, and overhear the woman behind you having a spirited conversation on her cell phone in a foreign language. Although you can't see her face or understand a word she's saying, you can accurately: 
A. predict the cultural display rules that will influence her facial expressions. 
B. determine whether the conversation is with a relative or a nonrelative. 
C. determine the emotions that she's expressing. 
D. identify her occupation and approximate age. 
Answer: 
232. Which of the following is an example of an emblem? 
A. nodding your heard to mean "yes" 
B. looking away and smiling sheepishly when you're embarrassed 
C. wearing white to a funeral in Atlanta 
D. running when frightened 
Answer: 
233. It's more acceptable for women than men to cry in public in the United States. This is an example of: 
A. the relatedness hypothesis. 
B. a gender-specific facial expression. 
C. the cognitive-mediational approach to explaining emotion. 
D. display rules. 
Answer: 
234. Which scientist argued that the differences in emotional experience between animals and humans were a matter of degree, not kind?
A. William James 
B. Paul Ekman 
C. Charles Darwin 
D. Abraham Maslow 
Answer: 
235. Which component of emotion is the MOST difficult to detect or establish as being present in nonhuman animals? 
A. physiological response 
B. behavioral expression 
C. subjective experience 
D. facial expressions 
Answer: 
236. The term anthropomorphism refers to: 
A. the study of human and animal interactions in prehistoric or primitive societies. 
B. the attribution of human traits, motives, or behaviors to nonhuman animals. 
C. the philosophical stance taken by animal rights activists, who believe that nonhuman animals possess the same rights and deserve the same protection as humans. 
D. the belief that all behaviors can be explained without reference to mental or conscious components, especially the behaviors of nonhuman animals. 
Answer: 
237. Tyler took his four-year-old daughter Samantha to the zoo.  "Look, Daddy," Samantha cried. "That mama tiger is kissing her baby!"  Samantha's remark is an example of: 
A. interpersonal engagement. 
B. confirmation bias. 
C. display rules. 
D. anthropomorphism. 
Answer: 
238. What evidence led psychologist Jaak Panksepp to conclude that rats "laugh"? 
A. Since rats are so playful and expressive, it stands to reason that they would laugh. 
B. Rats display a distinctive facial expression that is very similar to a human smile, and make a low chuck-chuck-chuck sound that is very similar to a human chuckle. 
C. Rats emit distinctive high-frequency chirps when they're tickled, when they play, when anticipating food treats, and during positive social interactions. 
D. Rats, unlike other rodents, tend to emit low-frequency squeals when they run on spinning wheels or through plastic tubes. 
Answer: 
239. Who was the first scientist to classify emotional expressions and displays in nonhuman animals? 
A. Paul Ekman 
B. Jaak Panksepp 
C. William James 
D. Charles Darwin 
Answer: 
240. Dr. Yamomoto is very careful to hide her true feelings and control her facial expressions when she is in the presence of the senior administrators in the hospital in which she works. This example illustrates: 
A. genetic predispositions. 
B. the facial feedback hypothesis. 
C. display rules of her culture. 
D. physiological components of emotion. 
Answer: 
241. The social and cultural rules that regulate the expression of emotion, particularly facial expressions, are called: 
A. incentive rules. 
B. facial feedback norms. 
C. display rules. 
D. innate rules. 
Answer: 
242. Dr. Pecchia's research focuses on emotions. If she is like most experts in this area, she is likely to agree with which of the following statements? 
A. Although facial expressions of basic emotions seem to be innate, we are still able to control our facial expressions. 
B. The majority of emotions are a function of learning, and we cannot control our facial expressions once they are learned. 
C. Facial expressions of emotion are innate, and therefore we are unable to control our facial expressions. 
D. Women are much more capable than men of controlling their facial expressions of emotion. 
Answer: 
243. Although facial expressions of emotion seem to be innate and, to a certain degree, universal among human cultures, we are still able to exert control over our facial expressions. This finding suggests that the expression of emotion: 
A. is determined entirely by display rules. 
B. is influenced entirely by genetic factors. 
C. can be affected by culture and environmental factors. 
D. is entirely psychological. 
Answer: 
244. Theories of emotion differ in terms of which components of emotion they emphasize. Which of the following is NOT one of those components? 
A. physical responses 
B. expressive behaviors 
C. genetic predispositions 
D. subjective experience 
Answer: 
245. The theory that emotions arise from the perception and interpretation of bodily changes is called the _____ theory of emotion. 
A. James-Lange 
B. two-factor 
C. Cannon-Bard 
D. cognitive-mediational 
Answer: 
246. When Spencer took his first ride on the big Ferris wheel, he looked down at the fairground one hundred feet below him and became aware of his high level of physiological arousal. Suddenly he felt frightened. The sequence of events in Spencer's emotional experience reflects the: 
A. facial feedback hypothesis of emotion. 
B. James-Lange theory of emotion. 
C. set-point theory of emotion. 
D. cognitive-mediational theory of emotion. 
Answer: 
247. Whenever she sees Dylan, Madison's heart beats faster and she gets a trembling feeling inside. Madison now believes that she must be in love with Dylan. Which theory of emotion is illustrated in this example? 
A. the cognitive-mediational theory 
B. the facial feedback hypothesis 
C. the James-Lange theory 
D. the Cannon-Bard theory 
Answer: 
248. In the 1920s, physiologist Walter Cannon criticized the James-Lange theory of emotion by noting that: 
A. physiological reactions are very different for different emotions. 
B. our emotional reaction to a stimulus often occurs much faster than our physiological reaction to a stimulus. 
C. when physiological changes are artificially induced, such as when a person is given a drug to speed up heart rate, the person immediately experiences the emotion of either fear or anger. 
D. people who are paralyzed because of a spinal cord injury do not experience emotion. 
Answer: 
249. Walter Cannon challenged the James-Lange theory, criticizing it on several grounds. Which of the following is one of those criticisms? 
A. The James-Lange theory over-emphasized the importance of physiological reactions. 
B. Cannon argued that the James-Lange theory failed to consider the importance of thoughts in emotional reactions. 
C. Cannon pointed out that bodily reactions are similar for many emotions, yet our subjective experience of various emotions is very different. 
D. The James-Lange theory described the nature of emotions but failed to explain how they occur. 
Answer: 
250. Bob is a spinal-cord injured patient with very little physical sensation or movement below his shoulders, yet he experiences emotions just as intensely as before the accident that caused his injury. This finding poses a problem primarily for the: 
A. cognitive-mediational theory of emotion. 
B. facial feedback hypothesis. 
C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion. 
D. James-Lange theory of emotion. 
Answer: 
251. According to the _____ theory of emotion, physiological arousal and the subjective conscious experience of emotion occur simultaneously rather than one causing the other to occur. 
A. Cannon-Bard 
B. two-factor 
C. James-Lange 
D. cognitive-mediational 
Answer: 
252. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the subjective experience of an emotion: 
A. can occur only before physiological arousal. 
B. can occur only after physiological arousal. 
C. is solely a function of cognitive interpretation. 
D. occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal. 
Answer: 
253. Which of the following has provided limited support for the James-Lange theory? 
A. the facial-feedback hypothesis 
B. the two-factor theory 
C. the Cannon-Bard theory 
D. the homeostatic hypothesis of emotion 
Answer: 
254. The view that expressing a specific emotion, especially facially, causes the subjective experience of that emotion is called the: 
A. cognitive-mediational theory. 
B. two-factor theory. 
C. facial feedback hypothesis. 
D. Cannon-Bard theory. 
Answer: 
255. When people act happy or fearful, they feel happier or more afraid. This finding lends some support to the _____ theory of emotion. 
A. James-Lange 
B. Cannon-Bard 
C. Schachter two-factor 
D. cognitive-mediational model 
Answer: 
256. Whenever he is feeling gloomy, Lloyd sings the song "Put on a Happy Face." According to the facial feedback hypothesis, if he follows the advice of the song Lloyd is likely to: 
A. become more depressed. 
B. experience little or no change in his emotions. 
C. irritate most people he comes in contact with. 
D. experience an elevation in his mood. 
Answer: 
257. The facial-feedback hypothesis suggests that: 
A. physiological arousal always follows the subjective experience of an emotion. 
B. physiological arousal and the subjective experience of an emotion occur simultaneously. 
C. expressing a specific emotion, especially facially, influences the subjective experience of that particular emotion. 
D. emotions result from the cognitive appraisal of the situation. 
Answer: 
258. Dr. Medely believes that emotion is the result of the interaction of physiological arousal and the cognitive label that we apply to explain the arousal. Dr. Medely's view is most consistent with the _____ theory of emotion. 
A. cognitive-mediational 
B. Cannon-Bard 
C. James-Lange 
D. two-factor 
Answer: 
259. The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by: 
A. Schachter and Singer. 
B. James and Lange. 
C. Cannon and Bard. 
D. Lazarus and Eckman. 
Answer: 
260. While writing a very tough final exam, Pietro noticed that his heart was pounding and his palms were sweaty. Pietro thought about it and decided that his pounding heart and sweaty palms were caused by anxiety. This best illustrates the _____ theory of emotion. 
A. facial feedback 
B. two-factor 
C. display rules 
D. opponent-process 
Answer: 
261. After a ride on the very frightening roller coaster with Helga, Manfred's heart was beating fast, his hands were sweating, and his knees were trembling. He looked at Helga and concluded that he must be falling in love with her. Manfred's emotional experience can best be explained by the: 
A. homeostatic theory of emotion. 
B. facial feedback hypothesis. 
C. two-factor theory of emotion. 
D. set-point theory of emotion. 
Answer: 
262. The results of Schachter and Singer's experiment in which subjects were injected with epinephrine just before spending time in either a "happy" condition or an "angry" condition support the idea that: 
A. emotion is the result of the interaction of physiological arousal and the cognitive label we apply to explain the arousal. 
B. most emotions can be experienced apart from physiological arousal. 
C. physiological arousal can cause the experience of emotions in the absence of a cognitive label. 
D. expressing a specific emotion facially causes the subjective experience of that emotion. 
Answer: 
263. Shortly after he finished a strenuous aerobic workout, Gary went on a date with Tricia. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, Gary's perception of Tricia's attractiveness: 
A. may be influenced by his physiological arousal. 
B. is not likely to be influenced by his physiological arousal. 
C. will depend entirely on her level of physiological arousal. 
D. will depend on the attractiveness of the other women he sees while on the date. 
Answer: 
264. The theory that emotions result from the cognitive appraisal of a situation's effect on personal well-being is called the: 
A. Schachter-Singer two-factor theory. 
B. Cannon-Bard theory. 
C. James-Lange theory. 
D. cognitive-mediational theory. 
Answer: 
265. Dr. Sheenan believes that cognitive appraisal is the essential trigger for an emotional response and that all other components of emotion, including physiological arousal, follow from the initial cognitive appraisal. Dr. Sheenan's views are most consistent with those of: 
A. Richard Lazarus. 
B. Stanley Schachter. 
C. William James. 
D. Walter Cannon. 
Answer: 
266. Sitting side by side, Amy and Howard watched the television as the news reporter announced, "With the votes from the remaining counties, there's no question that Senator Smith has won reelection!" At that moment, Howard jumped off the couch and cheered with joy, and Amy stomped angrily out of the room. Which theory of emotion BEST accounts for their different reactions to the same information? 
A. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion 
B. the facial feedback theory of emotion 
C. James-Lange theory of emotion 
D. Lazarus's cognitive-mediational theory of emotion 
Answer: 
267. According to _____, how an individual cognitively appraises the personal significance of any event will determine the emotion experienced. 
A. Paul Ekman 
B. Richard Lazarus 
C. William James and James Lange 
D. Walter Cannon 
Answer: 
268. Contemporary emotion researchers tend to agree that: 
A. the James-Lange theory still offers the best explanation of emotion. 
B. emotions can be triggered in multiple ways. 
C. the Cannon-Bard theory, combined with the facial feedback hypothesis, offers the most accurate explanation of emotion. 
D. cognitive interpretations play only a minor role in triggering emotions. 
Answer: 
269. The degree to which you are convinced of your ability to meet the demands of a particular situation is called: 
A. self-actualization. 
B. interpersonal engagement. 
C. self-efficacy. 
D. autonomy. 
Answer: 
270. According to Albert Bandura, the most effective way to strengthen your sense of self-efficacy is through: 
A. implementation intentions. 
B. extrinsic motivation. 
C. intrinsic motivation. 
D. mastery experiences. 
Answer: 
271. Dave is very confident about his ability to deal effectively with any situation that might arise in his job as a firefighter. Albert Bandura would probably classify Dave as a person with a high level of _____ in firefighting situations. 
A. sensation seeking 
B. drive 
C. arousal 
D. self-efficacy 
Answer: 
272. Megan has to give a class presentation in one week but hasn't begun preparing for it yet because she's convinced that she will not be able to do a good job. How could Megan overcome her self-doubts and increase her sense of self-efficacy in this situation? 
A. So she will realize how unrealistic her fears are, Megan should imagine giving a terrible presentation. 
B. Megan should ignore her fears and "just do it." 
C. Megan should observe other students doing class presentations, and ask the best students for advice. 
D. Megan should purchase and listen to subliminal tapes on building confidence and improving public speaking ability. 
Answer: 
273. Which of the following is NOT one of the suggestions to increase feelings of self-efficacy? 
A. Positive self-talk and positive mental imagery can help improve self-efficacy. 
B. Observing and imitating the behavior of someone who is already competent at the task you want to master can help you increase feelings of self-efficacy. 
C. Striving to be optimistic, but not so optimistic as to delude yourself, is useful in developing self-efficacy. 
D. When you approach a moderately challenging task, you should strive for perfection on your first attempt at the task. 
Answer: 
274. The Application section described a specific strategy for turning your goals into reality.  What is the name of that strategy? 
A. implementation intentions 
B. self-actualization 
C. drive motivation 
D. activation motivation 
Answer: 
275. Anthony decides to start running every morning before his first college class. He buys running clothes and some high-dollar athletic shoes, yet never quite makes it to the running path.  What strategies could help Anthony achieve his goal? 
A. Set a goal of competing in a national marathon in a year's time. 
B. Enlist a friend to nag him about running every day. 
C. Form a specific goal intention and create implementation intentions. 
D. Remind himself daily that he is out of shape and needs to start a regular exercise program. 
Answer: 
276. Many people form resolutions to achieve certain goals, yet never act on them. According to psychologist Peter Gollwitzer, what is the first step that a person should take in order to translate his or her intentions into actual behavior? 
A. Strive to become a more optimistic, confident, and goal-oriented person. 
B. Create a very specific, concrete goal intention. 
C. Create a five-year plan, listing ten goals that he or she hopes to achieve. 
D. Use Maslow's hierarchy of needs and make sure that needs that are lower in the hierarchy are fulfilled before trying to set new goals. 
Answer: 
277. A _____ refers to taking a vague, general intention and stating it as a concrete, specific, and binding goal. 
A. goal intention 
B. social model 
C. need hierarchy 
D. mastery experience 
Answer: 
278. Psychologist Peter Gollwitzer developed an approach that helps people achieve their goals. What are the two key strategies of Gollwitzer's approach? 
A. forming goal intentions and creating implementation intentions. 
B. creating mastery experiences and developing self-efficacy. 
C. meeting basic needs and achieving self-actualization. 
D. developing competence and achieving autonomy. 
Answer: 
279. After Shannon's doctor tells her that she needs to start a regular exercise program, Shannon takes a look at her schedule and decides that the best time for her to exercise is when she gets home from work, and that the best form of exercise for her is to take a brisk walk. Since Shannon has read the chapter Application, "Turning Your Goals into Reality," she decides to form a goal intention. Which of the following is the best example of a goal intention that would help Shannon turn her intention into reality? 
A. "I intend to become more physically fit." 
B. "I intend to start a regular exercise program." 
C. "I intend to walk 30 minutes a day, five days a week after work." 
D. "I will eat less and exercise more." 
Answer: 
280. Specifying exactly when, where, and how you will carry out an intended behavior, linking specific situational cues to the intended behavior, is called a(n): 
A. goal intention. 
B. implementation intention. 
C. mastery experience. 
D. observational model. 
Answer: 
281. Sarah wants to set up a regular study schedule in order to prepare for a comprehensive exam in her major subject.  She decides that she needs to study for at least two hours a day. She then makes a specific plan: she will study at her desk immediately after eating dinner, from 6:30 P.M. to 7:30 P.M., will take a 15-minute break, and then study at her desk again from 7:45 to 8:45.  Sarah has formed a(an): 
A. achievement hierarchy. 
B. implementation intention. 
C. needs hierarchy. 
D. drive intention. 
Answer: 
282. Just before leaving college for their holiday break, student volunteers in a research study were instructed to write an essay describing how they spent Christmas Eve and mail the essay within the next 48 hours. Half of the students were told to form an implementation intention describing exactly where and how they would write the essay before they left school for their Christmas break, and the other half did not do so. What were the results of the study? 
A. About half of the students in each group wrote and mailed the essay before the deadline. 
B. About 10% of the students in each group wrote and mailed the essay before the deadline. 
C. 32% of the students in the implementation intention group wrote and mailed the essay before the deadline, while 71% of the students in the other group did so. 
D. 71% of the students in the implementation intention group wrote and mailed the essay before the deadline, while only 32% of the students in the other group did so. 
Answer: 
283. Mental rehearsal can help you carry out your goals effectively if you: 
A. vividly imagine failing at your goal, in order to inoculate yourself against disappointment or the anxiety you will inevitably feel as you try to meet a challenge. 
B. visualize yourself dealing effectively with challenges and rehearse the process you will follow to achieve the outcome you want. 
C. imagine yourself succeeding beyond your wildest dreams, as challenges and obstacles melt away. 
D. visualize the rewards and accolades that you will receive if you achieve your goal. 
Answer: