1. Consciousness is formally defined as: 



A. the uncomfortable feeling that people are evaluating you. 


B. the various stages of sleep. 


C. personal awareness of mental activities, internal sensations, and the external environment. 


D. the ease with which you overcome sleep inertia.


E.


Answer: C 
2. As you are taking this test right now, you are aware of your thoughts, sensations, memories, and different aspects of the surrounding environment. Collectively, this awareness is referred to as: 



A. dissociation. 


B. consciousness. 


C. hypnagogic perception. 


D. delta brain wave activity.


E.


Answer: B 
3. It was the famous American psychologist named _____ who described consciousness as being like a river or a stream. 



A. William James 


B. Ernest Hilgard 


C. J. Allan Hobson 


D. Sigmund Freud


E.


Answer: A 
4. Which of the following statements best explains why consciousness has been viewed as a "stream" or "river"? 



A. Even though the contents of consciousness are constantly changing, we subjectively experience consciousness as being continuous and unbroken. 


B. Although we are aware of some of the contents of consciousness, consciousness can only be understood if you look below the "water line" at thought processes of which we are unaware. 


C. Consciousness can only be understood by looking at the environmental forces that shape our conscious thoughts. 


D. Consciousness can only be understood by using introspection.


E.


Answer: A 
5. Many of the leading psychologists in the early 1900s rejected the study of consciousness. Why? 



A. It was discovered that William James had reported false data in his research on consciousness. 


B. The study of mental disorders was deemed much more important than the study of ordinary consciousness. 


C. Freud insisted that psychology should study only unconscious mental activity. 


D. Self-reports of conscious experiences could not be directly observed, measured, and verified.


E.


Answer: D 
6. In recent decades, psychologists have again focused on the study of consciousness. One reason this has occurred is because: 



A. Freud's views on the importance of unconscious mental processes have been disregarded. 


B. psychologists have devised more objective ways to study conscious experience. 


C. structuralism has become the dominant school in psychology, which has brought with it a return to an emphasis on introspection. 


D. biorhythms have been discovered.


E.


Answer: B 
7. If you are like most people, you experience a daily slump in your mental alertness around 3 o'clock each afternoon. This daily fluctuation in mental alertness is an example of: 



A. a circadian rhythm. 


B. delta brain wave activity. 


C. REM rebound. 


D. narcolepsy.


E.


Answer: A 
8. The term circadian rhythm refers to: 



A. the influence of the 28-day lunar cycle on human and animal behavior. 


B. the consistent, daily fluctuations in many biological and psychological processes. 


C. the fact that many insects, including grasshoppers and crickets, have constant biological activity and do not sleep. 


D. the prenatal beginnings of sleep and dreaming.


E.


Answer: B 
9. According to the information presented in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. The sleep/wake cycle and the mental alertness cycle are the only two circadian rhythms that humans demonstrate. 


B. Under normal conditions, each of our circadian rhythms operates on a "free-running" schedule that varies from one day to the next. 


C. There are over 100 bodily processes that systematically vary over the course of each day. 


D. Men and women have fundamentally different circadian rhythms.


E.


Answer: C 
10. One practical implication of the mental alertness circadian rhythm is: 



A. the increased potential for traffic accidents at around 3 o'clock in the afternoon. 


B. that people should take supplemental melatonin to increase mental alertness when they wake up in the morning. 


C. that people should eat a light lunch. 


D. that people should avoid afternoon sunlight.


E.


Answer: A 
11. Melatonin is produced by: 



A. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. 


B. the pineal gland. 


C. exposure to sunlight. 


D. the use of stimulant drugs, such as caffeine and nicotine.


E.


Answer: B 
12. Which of the following statements about the suprachiasmatic nucleus is FALSE? 



A. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is your internal "biological clock." 


B. The suprachiasmatic nucleus governs the timing of circadian rhythms, including the sleep/wake cycle and the mental alertness cycle. 


C. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a cluster of neurons located in the brain structure called the hypothalamus. 


D. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a structure found in every cell and controls the timing of that cell's activities.


E.


Answer: D 
13. Where is the pineal gland located? 



A. In the brain. 


B. Next to the pancreas. 


C. In the throat. 


D. In the eyes.


E.


Answer: A 
14. Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus located? 



A. In the hypothalamus in the brain. 


B. In the retina of each eye. 


C. In the soft skin behind each knee. 


D. In the thyroid gland in the throat.


E.


Answer: A 
15. In response to bright morning light: 



A. there is an increase in the number of K complexes generated by the brain. 


B. the suprachiasmatic nucleus causes the pineal gland to decrease production of melatonin. 


C. the pineal gland increases production of melatonin. 


D. brief but harmless instances of REM rebound can occur.


E.


Answer: B 
16. Keeping circadian rhythms synchronized and operating on a 24-hour schedule: 



A. is normally impossible because of sleep spindles. 


B. involves the detection of sunlight by special photoreceptors in the eye and the communication of this information to the brain. 


C. is normally impossible except in special situations in which people are deprived of all time cues. 


D. involves carefully tracking the emotional, intellectual, and physical cycles of the person's biorhythms.


E.


Answer: B 
17. Exposure to sunlight and other bright lights: 



A. increases the production of melatonin. 


B. suppresses the production of melatonin. 


C. synchronizes the emotional, intellectual, and physical biorhythms. 


D. increases the incidence of sleep spindles.


E.


Answer: B 
18. Professor Behrens studies circadian rhythms. How does Professor Behrens create "free-running conditions" in his research? 



A. She systematically varies the time at which volunteers awaken or go to sleep. 


B. Volunteers are flown to a location on the opposite side of the world, which is 10 to 12 hours ahead of their normal time schedule. 


C. She uses an electroencephalogram to continuously monitor a person for 24 hours or longer. 


D. She arranges for volunteers to spend several weeks in underground caves without exposure to sunlight, clocks, or other time cues.


E.


Answer: D 
19. Under free-running conditions: 



A. volunteers experience strong symptoms of jet lag. 


B. volunteers gravitate to roughly a 25-hour day. 


C. emotional, intellectual, and physical biorhythms become closely synchronized with one another. 


D. people sleep about half as much as they normally do.


E.


Answer: B 
20. According to the Science Versus Pseudoscience Box, biorhythms: 



A. is a term that means the same thing as chronobiology. 


B. are a special form of circadian rhythms that can accurately predict the occurrence of accidents, athletic performance, and academic performance. 


C. supposedly follow a 23-day physical cycle, a 28-day emotional cycle, and a 33-day intellectual cycle. 


D. are most likely to occur during free-running conditions.


E.


Answer: C 
21. According to the Science Versus Pseudoscience Box on biorhythms, which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. There are numerous scientific studies showing that biorhythms accurately predict highs and lows in a person's emotional, intellectual, and physical state. 


B. There are virtually no scientific studies investigating the claims made by biorhythm proponents. 


C. Numerous scientific studies have found no support for the claims made by biorhythm experts. 


D. Researchers have found that biorhythms accurately predict industrial accidents but not the timing of births or deaths.


E.


Answer: C 
22. The rhythmic electrical patterns of the brain are called: 



A. biorhythms. 


B. brain waves. 


C. circadian rhythms. 


D. spikes.


E.


Answer: B 
23. Dr. Repetti is a sleep researcher who wishes to record the rhythmic electrical patterns of the brain. He is most likely to use which of the following methods? 



A. the electroencephalograph 


B. tracking changes in breathing, blood pressure, and body temperature 


C. CAT scans 


D. monitoring blood levels of melatonin


E.


Answer: A 
24. During the 1920s, German psychiatrist Hans Berger advanced the scientific study of sleep when he: 



A. invented the first CAT scanning device. 


B. discovered a procedure to monitor blood levels of melatonin. 


C. invented the electroencephalograph. 


D. discovered REM sleep in humans.


E.


Answer: C 
25. A major milestone in the scientific study of sleep occurred in the 1950s when University of Chicago researchers Eugene Aserinsky and Nathaniel Kleitman: 



A. invented the first electroencephalograph. 


B. invented the first CAT scanning device. 


C. discovered a procedure to monitor blood levels of melatonin. 


D. discovered REM sleep in humans.


E.


Answer: D 
26. REM is an acronym that stands for: 



A. reticular energies motion. 


B. rapid eye movements. 


C. retinal entrainment motion. 


D. random eye monitoring.


E.


Answer: B 
27. REM sleep is also called: 



A. paradoxical sleep. 


B. NREM sleep. 


C. sleep spindles. 


D. hypnagogic hallucinations.


E.


Answer: A 
28. As you are reading this question, you are awake and alert. This means that your brain is generating _____ brain waves. 



A. alpha 


B. beta 


C. theta 


D. delta


E.


Answer: B 
29. After turning out the light for the night, your head hits the pillow. Gradually, your muscles relax and drowsiness occurs. This drowsy yet wakeful state is associated with _____ brain waves. 



A. alpha 


B. beta 


C. theta 


D. delta


E.


Answer: A 
30. Shortly after going to bed and as you are falling asleep, you experience the vividly realistic sensation that you are falling or tripping forward, which jolts you awake. This vivid sensation is a common example of: 



A. REM rebound. 


B. delta brain wave activity. 


C. a hypnagogic hallucination. 


D. sleep apnea.


E.


Answer: C 
31. Sleeping by herself, LaShawn was gently drifting off to sleep when she was jolted awake by the vivid sensation that someone had just touched her arm. After sitting up and reassuring herself that no one was in the room, she lay back down and tried to put the experience out of her mind.  LaShawn had experienced _____, which is most likely to occur _____. 



A. an alien visit; in daylight 


B. a K complex; during Stage 4 NREM sleep. 


C. a hypnagogic hallucination; as a person is first going to sleep 


D. REM rebound; during caffeine withdrawal


E.


Answer: C 
32. Hypnagogic hallucinations: 



A. are also called K complexes. 


B. are the primary symptom of REM sleep behavior disorder. 


C. are occasionally experienced by most people. 


D. are an unusual sleep experience that occurs predominantly in infants and young children.


E.


Answer: C 
33. Which of the following best describes a myoclonic jerk? 



A. The person sitting in the second seat in the row next to me. 


B. A muscle twitch caused by excessive blood levels of nicotine. 


C. A spontaneously muscle contraction that causes a hypnotized person to suddenly and unexpectedly come out of hypnosis. 


D. As a person is going to sleep, an involuntary muscle spasm that jolts the person awake.


E.


Answer: D 
34. As you are lying in bed, your mind begins to drift and you become increasingly drowsy. During this short, transitional stage of sleep you disengage from the routine sounds in your environment. This sleep stage is called: 



A. REM sleep. 


B. stage 1 NREM. 


C. stage 2 NREM. 


D. slow-wave sleep.


E.


Answer: B 
35. You've been lying awake next to your bed partner for about five minutes. As you hear the other person's breathing become rhythmical, you notice occasional slight twitches in your partner's hand and leg. Most likely, your bed partner is in: 



A. stage 1 NREM. 


B. stage 2 NREM. 


C. stage 4 NREM. 


D. REM sleep.


E.


Answer: B 
36. Carlotta is a research assistant in the college sleep lab. As she monitored the EEG recording of a sleeping subject in the lab, she noted the presence of theta brain waves, sleep spindles, and K complexes. Carlotta concludes that the subject is in: 



A. REM sleep. 


B. stage 4 NREM. 


C. a hypnagogic hallucination. 


D. stage 2 NREM.


E.


Answer: D 
37. The presence of sleep spindles and K complexes are the defining characteristics of: 



A. narcolepsy 


B. Stage 2 NREM sleep 


C. night terrors 


D. REM sleep behavior disorder


E.


Answer: B 
38. During stage 4 NREM: 



A. the sleeper can easily awaken and become alert. 


B. the sleeper's heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate drop to their lowest levels. 


C. the sleeper is essentially paralyzed and incapable of movement. 


D. sleep spindles occur.


E.


Answer: B 
39. In combination, stage 3 NREM and stage 4 NREM: 



A. occur mostly during the second half of the night. 


B. are called paradoxical sleep. 


C. are comprised mostly of beta brain wave activity. 


D. are referred to as slow-wave sleep.


E.


Answer: D 
40. As you are being monitored by sleep researchers, almost all of your brain activity comprises delta brain waves. This is a clear sign that you are in: 



A. stage 4 NREM. 


B. REM sleep. 


C. sleep paralysis. 


D. stage 1 NREM.


E.


Answer: A 
41. Sleepwalking typically occurs during: 



A. REM sleep. 


B. hypnagogic hallucinations. 


C. stage 4 NREM. 


D. stage 1 NREM.


E.


Answer: C 
42. After returning from her vacation in Hawaii, your cousin apologizes for forgetting the time difference and calling while you were asleep. You're very puzzled by her comment because you have no recollection of the phone conversation. The phone conversation most likely occurred while you were experiencing: 



A. REM sleep. 


B. paradoxical sleep. 


C. beta brain waves. 


D. stage 4 NREM.


E.


Answer: D 
43. According to the information discussed in the box titled "What you really want to know about sleep," which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. Although it is extremely rare, a very small percentage of people never sleep but are normal in every other way. 


B. Sleep paralysis is a rare, progressive condition that ultimately leads to death. 


C. Sleep researchers have demonstrated that it is possible to have extended, meaningful conversations with people who are chronic sleep talkers. 


D. Listening to tape recordings of information while asleep is not an effective way to learn the information.


E.


Answer: D 
44. Yawning is: 



A. caused by too much carbon dioxide in a person's blood. 


B. typically followed by an increase in a person's activity level. 


C. caused by watching someone else yawn. 


D. caused by too little oxygen in a person's blood.


E.


Answer: B 
45. Which of the following seems to be involved in causing sleepiness? 



A. high blood levels of adenosine 


B. parasomnia 


C. low blood levels of melatonin 


D. beta brain waves


E.


Answer: A 
46. Sleep paralysis: 



A. is the most common cause of insomnia. 


B. usually precedes an episode of sleepwalking. 


C. usually lasts for a few minutes. 


D. is more common in left-handed people but researchers are not sure why this is so.


E.


Answer: C 
47. Observing a subject who is in REM sleep, a sleep researcher can conclude that all of the following are true of the subject EXCEPT: 



A. the subject is dreaming. 


B. the subject's brain becomes very active. 


C. voluntary muscle activity is suppressed in the subject. 


D. the subject's heart rate and blood pressure reach their lowest levels.


E.


Answer: D 
48. Dreaming usually takes place during _____ sleep and is typically accompanied by _____. 



A. NREM; voluntary muscle movements, including thrashing and sleepwalking 


B. deep; minimal brain activity 


C. REM; voluntary muscle movements, talking, and sleepwalking 


D. REM; physiological arousal, brain activity, and rapid movement of the eyes


E.


Answer: D 
49. On the average, each complete cycle through the stages of NREM sleep and REM sleep lasts about: 



A. 20 minutes. 


B. 1 hour. 


C. 90 minutes. 


D. 3 hours.


E.


Answer: C 
50. During a normal night's sleep, a person typically experiences about _____ of NREM and REM sleep. 



A. 1 cycle 


B. 2 cycles 


C. 5 cycles 


D. 8 cycles


E.


Answer: C 
51. Paul goes to bed at 10 P.M. and quickly falls asleep. He sleeps soundly until 6 A.M. the next morning. During the first four hours of sleep, Paul will most likely experience: 



A. long episodes of REM sleep. 


B. stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep. 


C. the complete absence of dreaming. 


D. very light sleep consisting almost entirely of stages 1 and 2 NREM.


E.


Answer: B 
52. Paula goes to bed at 10 P.M. and quickly falls asleep. She sleeps soundly until 6 A.M. the next morning. Between 2 A.M. and 6 A.M. Paula will most likely experience: 



A. long episodes of REM sleep. 


B. hypnagogic hallucinations. 


C. the complete absence of NREM sleep. 


D. stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep.


E.


Answer: A 
53. The cycles of NREM sleep and REM sleep begin: 



A. during fetal development. 


B. almost immediately after birth. 


C. about six months after birth. 


D. when the infant is about one year old.


E.


Answer: A 
54. On average, a newborn infant sleeps about 16 hours per day. How much of this sleep time is spent in REM sleep? 



A. none 


B. less than 20 percent of the sleep time 


C. about 50 percent of the sleep time 


D. all of a newborn's sleep time


E.


Answer: C 
55. Compared to her 40-year-old father, 7-year-old Allyssa: 



A. spends more time in deep sleep and REM sleep. 


B. spends less time in deep sleep but more time in REM sleep. 


C. spends more time in deep sleep but less time in REM sleep. 


D. spends less time in deep sleep and REM sleep.


E.


Answer: A 
56. Ted went without sleep for two days in order to study for a final exam. Ted can expect to experience: 



A. virtually no effect on his mental abilities and reaction time. 


B. very brief episodes of sleep called microsleeps. 


C. REM sleep behavior disorder. 


D. intense hypnagogic hallucinations.


E.


Answer: B 
57. When a group of healthy young men were restricted to sleeping four hours per night for a week: 



A. there was a deterioration in normal body functioning, including disruptions in body metabolism and glucose levels. 


B. they showed no impairment on tests of intellectual and perceptual abilities. 


C. no detectable physical changes occurred but approximately half of the research participants showed symptoms of depression. 


D. half of the research participants gravitated back to their normal sleeping schedule during the first two weeks following the study.


E.


Answer: A 
58. For several nights in a row, a sleep researcher wakes you up whenever you show signs of entering REM sleep. On the first night that you are allowed to sleep uninterrupted, you will most likely experience: 



A. microsleeps. 


B. a dramatic increase in stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep. 


C. REM rebound. 


D. very little REM sleep.


E.


Answer: C 
59. Both JoAnn and Jacob almost always feel sleepy and experience a slump in mental alertness around 3 o'clock in the afternoon, probably because: 



A. they have gotten inadequate sleep the night before. 


B. they have eaten a big lunch. 


C. it is a natural tendency in the mental alertness circadian rhythm. 


D. melatonin reaches its lowest blood levels at that time each day.


E.


Answer: C 
60. According to the information presented in the Culture and Human Behavior box titled "Siestas and Naps," which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. Taking a nap in the afternoon will make it more difficult to fall asleep at night. 


B. The tendency to feel sleepy in the middle of the afternoon is caused by eating a heavy meal at lunchtime. 


C. As a normal function of the mental alertness circadian rhythm, most people experience a slump in mental alertness in middle of the afternoon. 


D. Contrary to common sense, taking an afternoon nap tends to reduce subsequent productivity and alertness.


E.


Answer: C 
61. Because of the effects of depriving research subjects of either REM sleep or stages 3 and 4 NREM deep sleep, it seems clear that: 



A. we need to experience the full range of NREM sleep stages and REM sleep. 


B. neither REM sleep nor NREM sleep are necessary components of sleep. 


C. REM sleep is a necessary component of sleep but deep sleep is not. 


D. deep sleep is a necessary component of sleep but REM sleep is not.


E.


Answer: A 
62. According to the restorative theory of sleep, _____ is thought to be important for restoring mental functions while _____ is thought to be important for restoring body functions. 



A. REM sleep; NREM sleep 


B. NREM sleep; REM sleep 


C. quiet sleep; active sleep 


D. microsleeping; paradoxical sleep


E.


Answer: A 
63. According to the adaptive theory of sleep: 



A. different animal species have developed distinct sleeping patterns as a way of adapting to and surviving in their natural environment. 


B. humans will eventually evolve to the point where they will sleep for a matter of minutes each day. 


C. our prehistoric human ancestors had very little need to sleep. 


D. animals with many predators, such as grazing cattle and horses, tend to sleep the most.


E.


Answer: A 
64. According to a survey conducted by the National Sleep Foundation, approximately ___ out of ten Americans report frequent sleep-related problems. 



A. one 


B. three 


C. seven 


D. nine


E.


Answer: C 
65. According to the survey conducted by the National Sleep Foundation, approximately _____ of American adults are affected a few nights or more each week by at least one symptom of insomnia. 



A. 10 percent 


B. 25 percent 


C. 60 percent 


D. 90 percent


E.


Answer: C 
66. The most common sleep complaint among adults is: 



A. nightmares. 


B. night terrors. 


C. sleepwalking. 


D. insomnia.


E.


Answer: D 
67. "At night, I'll be lying in bed and I just feel compelled to move my legs every few minutes because it's the only thing I can do to make the itching or tingling sensation in my legs go away," Tasheena explained to the sleep specialist. The sleep specialist explained to Tasheena that she had a condition called: 



A. restless legs syndrome. 


B. sleep inertia. 


C. somnambulism. 


D. sleep bruxism.


E.


Answer: A 
68. Restless legs syndrome: 



A. is a common symptom indicating cocaine abuse. 


B. is the primary cause of sleepwalking. 


C. is an unusual circadian pattern seen primarily in school-aged children. 


D. contributes to insomnia for millions of Americans.


E.


Answer: D 
69. In the chapter 4 prologue story about Mike and Nina, Mike fixed himself an alcoholic drink, vodka and tonic water, in the middle of the night to help him go back to sleep. According to the chapter discussion, why is using alcohol to induce sleep not a good idea? 



A. Research has shown that the long-term use of alcohol and over-the-counter sleeping pills contributes to the development of REM sleep behavior disorder. 


B. Alcohol disrupts normal sleep cycles, including REM sleep. 


C. Hypermnesia is more likely to occur. 


D. Recent research has shown that alcohol can induce cataplexy.


E.


Answer: B 
70. In the chapter 4 prologue story about Mike and Nina, Nina screamed in the middle of the night because she was experiencing: 



A. a night terror episode. 


B. an episode of REM sleep behavior disorder. 


C. sleep inertia. 


D. a lucid dream.


E.


Answer: A 
71. Along with handling job-related hassles, Mena is struggling to keep up with her night classes. As the pressure mounts, Mena finds that she is often unable to go to sleep at night or that she repeatedly wakes up during the night. Mena's sleep disturbance is best described as: 



A. bruxism. 


B. narcolepsy. 


C. REM sleep behavior disorder. 


D. insomnia.


E.


Answer: D 
72. Mrs. Wilkinson notices that her middle-aged husband stops breathing in his sleep, awakens slightly to gulp in air, then goes back to sleep. This happens several times a night. Mr. Wilkinson is displaying which of the following sleep disorders? 



A. REM sleep behavior disorder 


B. nocturnal enuresis 


C. sleep apnea 


D. narcolepsy


E.


Answer: C 
73. Which of the following sleep problems is NOT more common in children? 



A. nocturnal enuresis 


B. night terrors 


C. sleepwalking 


D. REM sleep behavior disorder


E.


Answer: D 
74. Somnambulism is also called: 



A. sleepwalking. 


B. bedwetting. 


C. night terrors. 


D. sleep apnea.


E.


Answer: A 
75. The term nocturnal enuresis is: 



A. the technical name for bedwetting. 


B. used to describe the nighttime disruptions in REM sleep experienced by most people with narcolepsy. 


C. the technical term for night sweats. 


D. the leading cause of insomnia for millions of American adults.


E.


Answer: A 
76. Which of the following sleep problems tend to occur during the deep sleep of stages 3 and 4 NREM? 



A. narcolepsy and nightmares 


B. sleep apnea and narcolepsy 


C. sleepwalking and night terrors 


D. REM sleep behavior disorder and narcolepsy


E.


Answer: C 
77. It is almost midnight when you hear a scream from your child's bedroom. You rush to the room to discover your son sitting up in bed, perspiring, and thrashing against the blankets. Your son seems disoriented and confused as you try to calm him down. In just a few moments, the boy flops back in bed, sound asleep. What phenomenon has the child most likely experienced? 



A. an episode of REM sleep behavior disorder 


B. a narcoleptic sleep attack 


C. an acute episode of sleep apnea 


D. a night terror


E.


Answer: D 
78. Feeling tired from the long trip to visit you, your uncle decides to go to bed early. Later, as you quietly pass his open bedroom door, an unusual sound catches your attention. Suddenly, you realize that the sound is your uncle grinding his teeth in his sleep, which is called: 



A. REM sleep behavior disorder. 


B. sleep cataplexy. 


C. sleep bruxism. 


D. nocturnal enuresis.


E.


Answer: C 
79. The parasomnias are: 



A. extreme forms of insomnia. 


B. much more common among older males. 


C. the universal dream symbols that Freud first identified. 


D. sleep disorders that involve some type of activation during sleep.


E.


Answer: D 
80. Which of the following is an example of a parasomnia? 



A. being unable to sleep despite feeling tired 


B. having a vivid dream about the automobile accident you witnessed earlier in the day 


C. REM sleep behavior disorder 


D. becoming consciously aware that you are dreaming while you are dreaming


E.


Answer: C 
81. The sleep disorder that is characterized by the person moving about and acting out his dreams is called: 



A. REM sleep behavior disorder. 


B. nocturnal enuresis. 


C. sleep apnea. 


D. narcolepsy.


E.


Answer: A 
82. REM sleep behavior disorder and sleep apnea are similar in that both disorders: 



A. tend to begin during adolescence. 


B. occur during stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep. 


C. primarily affect older men. 


D. affect young children and typically occur shortly after the young child has gone to sleep.


E.


Answer: C 
83. Shortly after Jamil began the ninth grade, he was sent to the principal's office several times for nodding off in his classes. His mother said that Jamil had recently started doing the same thing at home. When Jamil had to make a presentation in front of his geography class, he stood up, then collapsed to the floor. Which of the following explanations is most likely? 



A. Jamil has sleep apnea. 


B. Jamil has REM sleep behavior disorder. 


C. Jamil has narcolepsy. 


D. Jamil has sleep inertia.


E.


Answer: C 
84. If a person has narcolepsy and experiences a "sleep attack," what happens to the person? 



A. The person instantly enters Stage 4 NREM sleep. 


B. The person experiences one or more "microsleeps" while appearing to be conscious. 


C. The person enters a parasomnia state of consciousness. 


D. The person instantly enters REM sleep and experiences sleep paralysis.


E.


Answer: D 
85. Narcolepsy: 



A. symptoms can be eliminated with a medication called Nembutal, which is currently available only in Europe. 


B. is considered to be a chronic, lifelong condition. 


C. symptoms almost always go into remission by the third decade of life. 


D. was first identified as a sleep disorder by Sigmund Freud.


E.


Answer: B 
86. A couple of times during the night, you awaken slightly. Each time you awaken, you're aware of vague mental images that reflect a conversation you and your boss had about resolving a problem at work. These bland, thoughtlike ruminations about real events are best described as: 



A. sleep thinking. 


B. hypnagogic hallucinations. 


C. dreams. 


D. somnambulism.


E.


Answer: A 
87. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic characteristics of dreams? 



A. The dream images are easy to remember. 


B. The content and organization of the dream images are illogical. 


C. Bizarre details are often uncritically accepted. 


D. Emotions can be intense.


E.


Answer: A 
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. Although they can seem like they last a long time, dreams actually happen in just a few seconds. 


B. Dreams can occasionally occur during NREM sleep. 


C. You are most likely to remember the dreams you have shortly after going to bed. 


D. Some people have only one or two dreams per month.


E.


Answer: B 
89. During REM sleep, the dreamer tends to uncritically accept the chaotic, even bizarre details of dreams. In terms of brain functioning, what seems to account for this? 



A. The frontal lobes are essentially shut down during REM sleep. 


B. Only the regions at the base of the brain are operational during REM sleep. 


C. The hippocampus quits functioning during REM sleep. 


D. Increased brain levels of the neurotransmitter GABA suppress activity in the temporal lobes.


E.


Answer: A 
90. Which of the following statements about brain activity during sleep is TRUE? 



A. Limbic system areas of the brain are active during REM sleep, including the amygdala and the hippocampus. 


B. PET scans have revealed that there are virtually no differences in brain activity during REM and NREM. 


C. The frontal lobes and the primary visual cortex are highly active during REM sleep. 


D. PET scans have shown that the right hemisphere is activated during REM sleep and the left hemisphere is activated during NREM sleep.


E.


Answer: A 
91. In a study described in your text, research participants learned a new task before going to sleep. During the night, some participants were repeatedly awakened during NREM sleep, other participants during REM sleep. What did the researchers find when they tested the participants on the new skill the next day? 



A. Those participants whose NREM sleep was disrupted showed improvement on the task. 


B. All participants showed about the same decline in performance on the skill the next day. 


C. Participants who were repeatedly awakened during NREM showed the greatest decline in performance of the skill. 


D. The brief disruptions in sleep made no difference and all participants showed improved performance on the task.


E.


Answer: A 
92. Most dreams: 



A. occur during stage 1 NREM. 


B. reflect the daily concerns of the dreamer. 


C. are accompanied by delta brain waves. 


D. are very organized and logical.


E.


Answer: B 
93. Which of the following statements about dreams is FALSE? 



A. Women are more likely than men to dream about being a victim of aggression. 


B. External sounds, such as a dog barking, can become integrated into the dreamer's dream. 


C. There are fundamental and consistent differences in the dream themes of people in Eastern cultures versus Western cultures. 


D. The majority of dreams are forgotten.


E.


Answer: C 
94. Which of the following explanations probably helps explain the fact that most dreams are forgotten? 



A. Carbon dioxide that progressively builds up in the blood during sleep interferes with the formation of new memories. 


B. The activity of neurotransmitters important to memory formation, such as serotonin and norepinephrine, is greatly reduced during REM sleep. 


C. During REM sleep, there is virtually no activity in important memory-processing areas of the brain, such as the amygdala and hippocampus. 


D. The formation of new memories is disrupted by melatonin.


E.


Answer: B 
95. You are LEAST likely to remember a dream if: 



A. you awaken during it. 


B. it is a vivid or bizarre dream. 


C. you are distracted by some other task upon awakening. 


D. the dream is emotionally intense.


E.


Answer: C 
96. Which of the following statements about nightmares is FALSE? 



A. A nightmare is basically an unpleasant anxiety dream that occurs during the deep sleep of stage 4 NREM. 


B. Nightmares are more common in children. 


C. Nightmares usually have the general theme of being helpless in the face of some kind of danger or destruction. 


D. Nightmares often produce spontaneous awakenings.


E.


Answer: A 
97. Based on the information discussed in the box titled "What You Re ally Want to Know About Dreams," which of the following statements is FALSE? 



A. The notion that dogs, cats, and other mammals experience dream imagery during REM sleep is a reasonable conclusion. 


B. People often dream in color. 


C. People who have been blind since birth do not dream. 


D. Having a dream in which you are killed or die is relatively common.


E.


Answer: C 
98. Sheena was describing a dream she had about her psychology class to a friend. "During the dream, I realized it was dream, and I didn't like the way the dream was going so I went back to the beginning of the dream and started it over," she explained to her astonished friend.  What had Sheena experienced? 



A. a lucid dream 


B. REM sleep behavior disorder 


C. REM rebound 


D. hypermnesia


E.


Answer: A 
99. Elaine remembers a dream in which a car was parked in front of her house and a man with a baseball bat kept getting in and out of the car. According to Sigmund Freud's theory, the specific dream details that Elaine remembers is called the _____ content. 



A. manifest 


B. repressed 


C. latent 


D. instinctual


E.


Answer: A 
100. Elaine is sitting in Sigmund Freud's office and tells him that she remembers a dream in which a car was parked in front of her house and a man with a baseball bat kept getting in and out of the car. After some discussion, Freud suggests to Elaine that the baseball bat probably symbolized the man's penis and the action of repeatedly entering the car probably symbolized sexual intercourse. The symbolic meaning of the dream that Freud suggested is called the _____ content. 



A. lucid 


B. manifest 


C. latent 


D. primal


E.


Answer: C 
101. Which of the following statements best captures Sigmund Freud's view of dreaming? 



A. Dream imagery is an obvious reflection of the everyday concerns of the dreamer. 


B. Dream imagery is a symbolic expression of repressed urges, wishes, and desires. 


C. The illogical content of dreams is a direct reflection of mental disorders. 


D. The interpretation of dreams reveals more about the psychological makeup of the person doing the interpreting than it does about the dreamer.


E.


Answer: B 
102. In psychoanalytic theory, the disguised, symbolic meaning of dreams is called the: 



A. manifest content. 


B. primal content. 


C. latent content. 


D. lucid content.


E.


Answer: C 
103. According to _____, dreaming is our subjective awareness of the brain's internally generated signals that occur repeatedly throughout the process of a night's sleep. 



A. the activation-synthesis model of dreaming 


B. Sigmund Freud's psychoanalysis theory 


C. Stephen LaBerge's model of lucid dreaming 


D. the evolutionary theory of sleep


E.


Answer: A 
104. In the activation-synthesis model of dreaming, what is activated? 



A. the dreamer's repressed urges and wishes 


B. circuits at the base of the brain that arouse more sophisticated brain areas, such as visual and auditory centers 


C. lucid dreams in which the dreamer becomes aware that he or she is dreaming 


D. dream goggles that signal the sleeper that REM sleep is occurring


E.


Answer: B 
105. In the activation-synthesis model of dreaming, what is synthesized? 



A. primitive sexual and aggressive impulses 


B. the four stages of NREM sleep so that more REM sleep may occur 


C. the neurotransmitter called serotonin and the hormone called melatonin 


D. a hodgepodge of memories and sensations that are internally generated by the brain


E.


Answer: D 
106. Which of the following people is associated with the activation-synthesis model of dreaming? 



A. J. Allan Hobson 


B. William C. Dement 


C. Sigmund Freud 


D. Hans Berger


E.


Answer: A 
107. According to the activation-synthesis model of dreaming: 



A. dreams are completely meaningless. 


B. the imagery in dreams is highly symbolic of repressed urges, wishes, and desires. 


C. dreams are meaningful insofar as they reflect how the dreamer imposes personal meaning on the images generated by his or her brain. 


D. sleepwalking is most likely to occur during the activation phase of dreaming while sleeptalking is most likely to occur during the synthesis phase of dreaming.


E.


Answer: C 
108. Which of the following best defines hypnosis? 



A. A sleep-like trance in which a person loses control of his or her behavior and all sense of self. 


B. A cooperative social interaction in which the hypnotized person responds to the hypnotist's suggestions. 


C. A condition in which a person's subconscious impulses and ideas become conscious and accessible to the trained hypnotist. 


D. One of the five sleep stages, which typically occurs just before a person awakens.


E.


Answer: B 
109. _____ is defined as a cooperative social interaction in which one person responds to another person's suggestions with changes in perception, memory, and behavior. 



A. Sleep-walking 


B. Lucid dreaming 


C. Meditation 


D. Hypnosis


E.


Answer: D 
110. When they are hypnotized, people typically: 



A. lose all awareness of their surroundings. 


B. are in a deep trance, which is similar to stage 4 NREM sleep. 


C. remain aware of who they are and of their surroundings. 


D. can accurately recall memories of early childhood and infancy.


E.


Answer: C 
111. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of the hypnotic state? 



A. Highly focused attention. 


B. Loss of conscious awareness. 


C. Willingness to accept distortions of logic or reality. 


D. Increased ability to experience vivid images and fantasies.


E.


Answer: B 
112. A person's susceptibility to hypnosis can be tested using: 



A. the Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale. 


B. the Stagecraft Hypnotic Subject Index. 


C. the Yale Hypermnesia Scale 


D. the Kirsch-Braffman Imaginative Suggestibility Scale.


E.


Answer: A 
113. The Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale and the Harvard Group Scale of Hypnotic Susceptibility are: 



A. completely bogus, but are used to deceive research participants into thinking that they are being hypnotized. 


B. tests that measure a person's lack of willpower. 


C. tests that measure a person's susceptibility to hypnosis. 


D. used to determine whether a particular person can safely be hypnotized.


E.


Answer: C 
114. The best candidates for hypnosis are people who: 



A. are very shy and easily influenced. 


B. can easily become immersed in fantasy and imaginary experiences. 


C. seldom remember their dreams. 


D. frequently have lucid dreams.


E.


Answer: B 
115. Compared to adults, children: 



A. are virtually impossible to hypnotize. 


B. are less responsive to hypnosis. 


C. are more responsive to hypnosis. 


D. are not responsive to hypnotic suggestions that involve the reduction of pain or discomfort.


E.


Answer: C 
116. Based on your text discussion, which of the following people would probably be LEAST susceptible to hypnosis? 



A. Jackie, who is seven years old. 


B. Sam, an adult who becomes deeply absorbed when he reads books or watches movies. 


C. Lily, an adult who has never been hypnotized but who is very interested in trying hypnosis. 


D. Jeff, who scoffs at the idea of hypnosis and privately finds the idea to be rather frightening.


E.


Answer: D 
117. Jack is experiencing temporary deafness, but he is neither physically ill nor under the influence of any drug.  The most likely explanation is that Jack is: 



A. in stage 2 NREM sleep. 


B. meditating. 


C. hypnotized. 


D. narcoleptic.


E.


Answer: C 
118. Which of the following changes can NOT be produced through hypnosis? 



A. temporary blindness or deafness 


B. temporary moments of superhuman strength 


C. hallucinated images 


D. loss of sensation in a specific body area, such as an arm or a leg


E.


Answer: B 
119. Which of the statements about hypnosis is TRUE? 



A. It is possible to hypnotize a person against his or her will. 


B. Even though the details of a crime scene were seen only briefly, hypnosis can be used to help a witness "zoom in" on the scene and accurately remember all the details. 


C. Although hypnosis can be used to aid the recall of information, it is impossible to suppress the memory of specific information using hypnosis. 


D. People can experience hallucinations under hypnosis.


E.


Answer: D 
120. A hypnotist instructed Hermione that when she came out of hypnosis, she would be unable to spell her own name.  This is an example of: 



A. a posthypnotic suggestion. 


B. age regression. 


C. hypermnesia 


D. a pseudomemory.


E.


Answer: A 
121. The effects of posthypnotic suggestions: 



A. can last for months or even years. 


B. typically last for only a few hours or days. 


C. are permanent, unless they are removed or cancelled by a signal from the hypnotist. 


D. have never been demonstrated in controlled scientific studies.


E.


Answer: B 
122. The term hypermnesia refers to: 



A. the enhancement of memory through hypnosis. 


B. the suppression of memory through hypnosis. 


C. the semi-conscious, drowsy state that occurs just before you fall asleep. 


D. the semi-conscious, drowsy state that occurs just as you are waking up.


E.


Answer: A 
123. Bill was riding his bike down the highway when a pick-up truck side-swiped him, knocked him off his bicycle, and sped off without stopping. Bill was badly injured, and can't remember the truck's license plate number, although he knows he saw it when the truck sped off after hitting him. A police detective suggests that Bill try to recall the license plate number under hypnosis.  If Bill was able to recall the memory under hypnosis, this would be an example of a hypnotic phenomenon called: 



A. posthypnotic amnesia. 


B. hypermnesia. 


C. dissociation. 


D. regression.


E.


Answer: B 
124. Which of the following statements best summarizes how hypnosis affects memory? 



A. Hypnosis is much more effective at enhancing a person's confidence in memories than it is at improving the accuracy of the memories. 


B. If a memory is forgotten or repressed, hypnosis is one of the most effective ways to produce the recall of vivid and highly accurate details. 


C. Under hypnosis, a person actually "relives" an earlier experience, such as an event from childhood, which virtually guarantees that the information recalled is accurate. 


D. Hypnosis is significantly more effective than other memory retrieval techniques in producing the accurate recall of information and events.


E.


Answer: A 
125. Pseudomemories: 



A. are the same as someone pretending that information is true when they know fully well it is not. 


B. are impossible to create with adults using hypnosis. 


C. can inadvertently be created when hypnosis is used to aid recall. 


D. almost always cause people to spontaneously come out of hypnosis.


E.


Answer: C 
126. According to the text discussion, age regression: 



A. is the use of hypnosis to recall or re-experience an earlier time in the lifespan. 


B. reliably produces vivid and accurate memories of events that occurred during an earlier developmental period. 


C. is especially useful in uncovering the authentic details of childhood events that have been repressed from memory, such as abuse. 


D. is dangerous because the person may not be able to return to his or her actual age.


E.


Answer: A 
127. Troubled by various psychological symptoms, Tanisha decides to ask her therapist to hypnotize her and take her back to her earliest memories to see if she experienced some kind of traumatic event that might explain her current problems. The notion that hypnosis can allow you to relive early childhood experiences is called: 



A. repression. 


B. dissociation. 


C. hidden observer. 


D. age regression.


E.


Answer: D 
128. Troubled by various psychological symptoms, Tanisha decides to ask her therapist to hypnotize her and take her back to her earliest memories to see if she experienced some kind of traumatic event that might explain her current problems. If Tanisha's therapist agreed to do so, what is likely to happen? 



A. Tanisha will be able to retrieve accurate memories of early childhood, but not infancy. 


B. Tanisha will be able to retrieve accurate memories back to and including her experiences during birth. 


C. Tanisha's traumatic memories are probably too deeply repressed to be retrieved through hypnosis unless the therapist is able to enlist the help of Tanisha's hidden observer. 


D. Tanisha is likely to produce pseudomemories rather than accurate memories.


E.


Answer: D 
129. The attempt to use hypnosis to recall or re-experience an earlier developmental period is called: 



A. dissociation. 


B. enlisting the hidden observer. 


C. age regression. 


D. posthypnotic amnesia.


E.


Answer: C 
130. Scientific research has documented that hypnosis is effective for: 



A. helping people stop smoking. 


B. increasing a person's physical strength and agility. 


C. pain relief. 


D. greatly enhancing  the ability to accurately recall experiences from early childhood.


E.


Answer: C 
131. According to scientific research, hypnosis has NOT been shown to be effective in: 



A. helping people stop smoking. 


B. eliminating or reducing stuttering. 


C. wart removal. 


D. lessening the severity and frequency of asthma attacks.


E.


Answer: A 
132. According to _____, the hypnotized person experiences dissociation. 



A. Sigmund Freud 


B. Ernest Hilgard 


C. Nicholas Spanos and Graham Wagstaff 


D. William James


E.


Answer: B 
133. The neodissociation theory of hypnosis suggests that the hypnotized person experiences: 



A. the splitting of consciousness into two or more simultaneous streams of mental activity. 


B. social pressure to conform to the hypnotist's expectations in the situation. 


C. multiple personalities. 


D. suppression of the brain's most sophisticated regions.


E.


Answer: A 
134. Psychologist Ernest Hilgard uses the term hidden observer to refer to the: 



A. fact that the hypnotized person experiences multiple personalities. 


B. stream of mental activity that the hypnotized person is not consciously aware of yet continues to process. 


C. use of a second hypnotist during hypnotic training sessions. 


D. fact that the hypnotized person is often unaware of other people in the room.


E.


Answer: B 
135. Hilgard's neodissociation theory of hypnosis: 



A. contends that hypnosis is a special state of consciousness. 


B. has demonstrated that most people are faking their hypnotic responses. 


C. was tested and rejected by a scientific committee that included J. Allan Hobson. 


D. first became a popular pseudoscience in the early 1900s.


E.


Answer: A 
136. According to the Critical Thinking box on explanations of hypnosis, what evidence seems to undermine the notion that hypnosis involves dissociation and is a special state of consciousness? 



A. The phenomenon of multiple personalities is extremely rare. 


B. Highly motivated people often perform the same tasks or abilities just as well as hypnotized subjects. 


C. EEG recordings have shown that brain activity is virtually identical during stage 4 NREM sleep and hypnosis. 


D. Hallucinogenic drugs produce many of the same effects as hypnosis.


E.


Answer: B 
137. According to the social-cognitive view of hypnosis, hypnotized subjects are 



A. experiencing an altered or special state of consciousness. 


B. experiencing dissociation. 


C. deliberately faking. 


D. responding to the social demands of the situation.


E.


Answer: B 
138. Which of the following evidence tends to support the neodissociation theory of hypnosis? 



A. Highly motivated people often perform the same tasks just as well as hypnotized people. 


B. People who are pretending to be hypnotized stop acting as if they are hypnotized when they are not being observed, but people who are actually hypnotized do not. 


C. Only highly suggestible people can be hypnotized. 


D. Only people who are experiencing mild pain experience pain relief through hypnosis.


E.


Answer: B 
139. Non-state theorists believe that hypnosis can be explained in terms of all of the following psychological phenomena EXCEPT 



A. conformity and compliance. 


B. role enactment. 


C. situational expectations. 


D. changes in brain activity.


E.


Answer: D 
140. In a study described in the Critical Thinking Box, "Is Hypnosis a Special State of Consciousness?", hypnotized volunteers were instructed to look at a photograph of gray rectangles and mentally add color to the photograph, so that they would perceive colored rectangles.  When they did so, what did PET scan images reveal about their brain activity? 



A. Activity increased in left and right hemisphere color areas. 


B. Activity decreased in left and right hemisphere color areas. 


C. There was no change in brain activity. 


D. Brain regions involved in color perception did not change but regions known to be activated when people are lying or being deceptive showed a sharp increase in activity.


E.


Answer: A 
141. According to the Critical Thinking Box, "Is Hypnosis a Special State of Consciousness?", studies of hypnosis using brain-imaging techniques tend to support which view of hypnosis? 



A. That hypnosis has no effect at all, but people who claim to be hypnotized don't realize that they are faking their responses. 


B. That people who claim to be hypnotized are consciously faking their responses. 


C. That hypnosis is simply role-playing and is probably not a special state of consciousness. 


D. That hypnosis is a distinct mental state, and not merely role-playing.


E.


Answer: D 
142. According to the Critical Thinking Box, "Is Hypnosis a Special State of Consciousness?", some research has shown that certain people are highly responsive to suggestions whether they are formally hypnotized or not. This finding tends to support which view of hypnosis? 



A. The social-cognitive view. 


B. The imaginative suggestibility view. 


C. The neodissociation, special state view. 


D. The role-playing view.


E.


Answer: B 
143. According to the imaginative suggestibility explanation of hypnosis, 



A. hypnosis is a special state of consciousness. 


B. highly motivated people can fake hypnotic responses so well that their deception cannot be detected, even by experts. 


C. some people are highly responsive to suggestions whether they are formally hypnotized or not. 


D. hypnotic phenomena can be easily explained in terms of normal social and cognitive psychological processes.


E.


Answer: C 
144. A group of techniques that induce an altered state of focused attention and heightened awareness is a definition of: 



A. hypnosis. 


B. somnambulism. 


C. meditation. 


D. age regression.


E.


Answer: C 
145. Meditation techniques that involve focusing your awareness on an image, a word, a phrase, or your breathing are referred to as _____ techniques. 



A. beta 


B. dissociation 


C. opening-up 


D. concentration


E.


Answer: D 
146. While meditating, Steward tries to achieve a quiet awareness of the "here and now" without any distracting thoughts. Steward is using a(n) _____ meditation technique. 



A. hidden observer 


B. opening-up 


C. dissociation 


D. concentration


E.


Answer: B 
147. Experienced meditators often describe meditation as: 



A. producing a state very similar to stage 4 NREM sleep. 


B. boring. 


C. producing relaxation and wakeful alertness. 


D. being very similar to the rush of euphoria and self-confidence produced by cocaine.


E.


Answer: C 
148. Which of the following statements about meditation is TRUE? 



A. A common theme in different meditative practices is the goal of retraining or controlling attention. 


B. Physiologically, meditation is most similar to deep sleep (stage 4 NREM). 


C. The effects of meditation are caused by increased blood levels of a compound called adenosine. 


D. As is the case with hypnosis, empirical research has demonstrated that meditation is probably a pseudoscience with no beneficial effects beyond that of simple relaxation.


E.


Answer: A 
149. Psychologically and physiologically, meditation is almost identical to: 



A. stage 4 NREM or deep sleep 


B. dreaming sleep. 


C. the hypnagogic state. 


D. None of the above.


E.


Answer: D 
150. The text describes several effects of regular meditative practice.  Which of the following was NOT described in your text? 



A. lowered blood pressure 


B. stress reduction 


C. pain relief 


D. decreased heart rate


E.


Answer: C 
151. The Focus on Neuroscience, "Imaging the Brain During Peak Meditation Experiences" described the use of a brain imaging technique called "SPECT" technique to study meditation.  Why didn't the researchers use PET or fMRI scanners? 



A. Because  PET and fMRI scanners do not have the ability to accurate detect very subtle changes in brain activity. 


B. Because the study was conducted in Tibet, where PET and fMRI scanners were not available. 


C. Because PET and fMRI scanners are noisy, which would disrupt the meditative state. 


D. The subtle changes in consciousness that occur during meditation do not affect brain activity, so SPECT was used to measure peripheral nervous system activity.


E.


Answer: C 
152. The Focus on Neuroscience feature, "Imaging the Brain During Peak Meditation Experiences,"described a brain-imaging study of meditation.  What did the researchers discover in their study? 



A. Activity increased in both frontal lobes and decreased in the left parietal lobe. 


B. Activity decreased in the frontal lobes and parietal lobes. 


C. Activity sharply increased throughout the limbic system. 


D. There were no differences between brain activity during so-called "peak" meditative experiences and normal wakefulness.


E.


Answer: A 
153. The Focus on Neuroscience feature, "Imaging the Brain During Peak Meditation Experiences," described a brain-imaging study of meditation.  Which change in brain activity seemed to correspond to the meditators' experience of altered time and space? 



A. Increased activity in the frontal lobes. 


B. Decreased activity in the right temporal lobe. 


C. A sharp increase in activity throughout the limbic system. 


D. Decreased activity in the left parietal lobe.


E.


Answer: D 
154. The Focus on Neuroscience feature, "Imaging the Brain During Peak Meditation Experiences," described a brain-imaging study of meditation.  What general conclusion about meditation seems to be supported by the research findings? 



A. Meditation has distinct effects on brain activity, which seem to correspond to the meditators' subjective experience. 


B. There were no differences in brain activity between the meditative state and a relaxed, resting state. 


C. Brain activity during meditation is almost identical to that which occurs during hypnotically induced hallucinations. 


D. Brain activity during meditation is very similar to that which occurs during REM sleep.


E.


Answer: A 
155. Chemical substances that can alter arousal, mood, thinking, sensation, and perception are called: 



A. psychosomatic medications. 


B. psychoactive drugs. 


C. hypermnesiac drugs. 


D. K compounds.


E.


Answer: B 
156. Meditation and hypnosis are similar in that they both involve: 



A. delta brain wave activity. 


B. a stream of mental activity of which the person is completely unaware. 


C. the deliberate use of mental techniques to change the experience of consciousness. 


D. dissociation.


E.


Answer: C 
157. When a person needs a gradual increase in the amount of a psychoactive drug to produce the desired effect, _____ has occurred. 



A. drug rebound effect 


B. tolerance 


C. dissociation 


D. inhibition


E.


Answer: B 
158. Jared regularly takes a pain reliever for his back pain.  After a few weeks, he notices that he needs to increase the amount of pain-relieving drug that he takes each day in order to achieve the same level of pain relief. The phenomenon that Jared is experiencing is called: 



A. drug tolerance. 


B. the drug rebound  effect. 


C. withdrawal symptoms. 


D. drug abuse.


E.


Answer: A 
159. If people abstain from a drug after they have become physically addicted to it, they may experience _____ which include craving for the drug and unpleasant physical reactions which are sometimes opposite to the drug's original effects. 



A. psychoactive effects. 


B. physical dependence. 


C. withdrawal symptoms. 


D. tolerance symptoms.


E.


Answer: C 
160. Because Paula suffers from frequent headaches, she began taking a powerful pain reliever every day.  Lately she has noticed that when she avoids taking the pain reliever for a few days, her headaches are more intense and more frequent than they had been before she began taking the new medication.  Paula is probably experiencing: 



A. drug tolerance. 


B. the drug rebound effect. 


C. psychological addiction. 


D. a drug side-effect.


E.


Answer: B 
161. After hiking to a remote area and setting up camp, Brendan and Beth discovered that neither of them had packed any coffee. During the next several days, both Beth and Brendan felt groggy and listless, craved coffee, and experienced headaches. Brendan and Beth are: 



A. physically dependent on coffee. 


B. experiencing withdrawal symptoms. 


C. experiencing drug rebound effect. 


D. All of the above answers are correct.


E.


Answer: D 
162. Rona is told by her physician that she has become physically dependent upon the tranquilizers prescribed for her by another doctor. In this context, "physically dependent" means that: 



A. her body and brain chemistry have physically adapted to the drug. 


B. she no longer experiences the drug rebound effect. 


C. withdrawal symptoms will not be alleviated if she takes the drug again. 


D. she will no longer experience the drug's psychological effects.


E.


Answer: A 
163. Which of the following factors can influence a drug's effects? 



A. the user's size, gender, age, and metabolism 


B. environmental factors, such as the setting in which the drug is taken 


C. the user's mood and personality characteristics 


D. all of the above


E.


Answer: D 
164. According to psychologists, the formal meaning of the term drug abuse is: 



A. the use of any drug to alter consciousness. 


B. the use of any illegal drug. 


C. recurrent drug use that results in disrupted academic, social, or occupational functioning, or in legal or psychological problems. 


D. a pattern of recurrent drug use that results in physical addiction to an illegal drug.


E.


Answer: C 
165. Which of the following factors has NOT been shown to be associated with drug abuse? 



A. social or cultural norms that favor the use of drugs 


B. problems with work or school 


C. rebelliousness and alienation 


D. being a second-born child


E.


Answer: D 
166. Depressant drugs: 



A. tend to increase a person's inhibitions. 


B. inhibit the activity of the central nervous system. 


C. are sometimes used to enhance mental alertness. 


D. do not have the potential to produce physical dependence.


E.


Answer: B 
167. Alcohol is classified as a: 



A. stimulant drug. 


B. natural opiate. 


C. narcotic drug. 


D. depressant.


E.


Answer: D 
168. Which of the following statements about alcohol is FALSE? 



A. Women metabolize alcohol more quickly than men. 


B. Blood levels of alcohol will rise more slowly if food is consumed while drinking an alcoholic beverage. 


C. For the person who is physically addicted to alcohol, withdrawal from alcohol causes hyperexcitability in the brain. 


D. Alcohol's effects on the brain are global.


E.


Answer: A 
169. It is estimated that approximately _____ million Americans are alcoholics who are physically addicted to alcohol. 



A. 1 


B. 7 


C. 15 


D. 30


E.


Answer: B 
170. Which of the following statements about binge drinking is FALSE? 



A. Among college students, about half admit that they "drank to get drunk" during the previous year. 


B. Binge drinking can result in death. 


C. On college campuses, binge drinking is most common among minority students, especially African-American and Asian-American college students. 


D. On college campuses, binge drinking is most common among members of members of fraternities and sororities.


E.


Answer: C 
171. You have been asked to serve drinks at your friend's wedding. He asks you to make sure that no one drinks too much liquor, so you try to keep track of how much each guest is drinking. In order to make sure that no one drinks too much, you need to know how much alcohol is in each drink. Which of the following contains the MOST alcohol? 



A. one ounce of 80-proof whiskey 


B. four ounces of wine 


C. a twelve-ounce can of beer 


D. One ounce of whiskey, four ounces of wine, and twelve ounces of beer all contain the same amount of alcohol.


E.


Answer: D 
172. Erich is a chronic, severe alcoholic who has been hospitalized while he withdraws from alcohol. Which of the following is the most likely reason he was hospitalized? 



A. Depression commonly occurs during alcohol withdrawal. 


B. People often sleep for days during alcohol withdrawal. 


C. He was kept busy during the process of alcohol withdrawal. 


D. Delirium tremens may occur as he withdraws from alcohol.


E.


Answer: D 
173. Barbiturates are also commonly referred to as: 



A. downers. 


B. uppers. 


C. psychedelics. 


D. poppies.


E.


Answer: A 
174. Barbiturates: 



A. interfere with REM sleep. 


B. are a class of powerful hallucinatory drugs. 


C. stimulate regions at the base of the brain and enhance alertness. 


D. are derived from opium.


E.


Answer: A 
175. Which of the following drugs is NOT an example of a barbiturate? 



A. heroin 


B. Seconal 


C. Nembutal 


D. Quaaludes


E.


Answer: A 
176. Inhalants: 



A. are illegal chemical substances. 


B. have been banned in the United States since the early 1900s. 


C. are most commonly abused by male teenagers. 


D. vary widely but are generally classified as one of the opiates.


E.


Answer: C 
177. Inhalants are most commonly abused by: 



A. people who are addicted to heroin or morphine. 


B. middle-aged adults, who do not wish to risk being caught with illegal substances. 


C. adolescent and young adult females. 


D. adolescent and young adult males.


E.


Answer: D 
178. Inhaling the fumes from paint solvents, airplane glue, and aerosol sprays can cause: 



A. stimulation of the central nervous system. 


B. giddiness, relaxation, reduced inhibitions, and hallucinations. 


C. abnormally high body temperature, sweating, and thirst. 


D. chills, muscle cramps, and increased appetite.


E.


Answer: B 
179. The opiates: 



A. are a group of addictive drugs first discovered in the 1960s. 


B. mimic endorphins and occupy endorphin receptor sites in the brain. 


C. include the prescription drugs Seconal and Nembutal. 


D. are almost chemically identical to the neurotransmitter serotonin.


E.


Answer: B 
180. Morphine, Demerol, and Percodan are similar in that they: 



A. are depressant drugs. 


B. are tranquilizers. 


C. reduce the perception of pain. 


D. are derivatives of cocaine.


E.


Answer: C 
181. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 



A. If you had been living in the United States in 1900, you could legally purchase heroin. 


B. It is common for people to die as a direct result of heroin withdrawal. 


C. Morphine reduces pain by blocking pain signals at the site of an injury. 


D. Opium is derived from the cacao plant.


E.


Answer: A 
182. Which of the following is NOT classified as a stimulant? 



A. cocaine 


B. nicotine 


C. caffeine 


D. alcohol


E.


Answer: D 
183. The most widely used psychoactive drug in the world is: 



A. heroin. 


B. marijuana. 


C. cocaine. 


D. caffeine.


E.


Answer: D 
184. Which of the following statements about nicotine is FALSE? 



A. When cigarette smoke is inhaled, nicotine reaches the brain in a matter of seconds. 


B. Nicotine enhances mood, attention, and arousal. 


C. Because the nicotine in cigarette smoke and other tobacco products produces relaxation, nicotine is technically classified as a depressant. 


D. Nicotine activates a variety of brain areas, including the frontal lobes, the thalamus, and the hippocampus.


E.


Answer: C 
185. _____ are highly addictive drugs that suppress appetite, produce euphoria, and reduce fatigue, and were once widely prescribed as diet pills. 



A. Barbiturates 


B. Opiates 


C. Percodan and Demerol 


D. Amphetamines


E.


Answer: D 
186. Michael needed to cram for a series of comprehensive exams, so he asked a friend for several "white cross" tablets, a type of amphetamine, to help him stay awake so he could study without sleeping for three days.  Michael was able to stay awake, but he most likely would risk: 



A. lapsing into a coma after two days of taking the pills. 


B. becoming drowsy and unable to concentrate on  his studies. 


C. "crashing" and experiencing withdrawal symptoms of extreme fatigue and depression when he stopped taking the pills. 


D. hypnagogic hallucinations.


E.


Answer: C 
187. _____ is a type of amphetamine that can be easily manufactured, provides an intense high, and causes a reduction in the brain's dopamine transporters and receptors. 



A. Caffeine 


B. Mescaline 


C. MDMA, also known as "ecstasy," 


D. Methamphetamine


E.


Answer: D 
188. Long-term methamphetamine use can produce damage to the brain's 



A. visual system, impairing the ability to see fine details. 


B. dopamine system, which is associated with memory and motor skill problems. 


C. serotonin system, which is associated with severe depression. 


D. anandamide system, which is associated with increased pain sensitivity.


E.


Answer: B 
189. Cocaine is derived from: 



A. codeine. 


B. the opium poppy. 


C. the coca plant. 


D. the peyote cactus.


E.


Answer: C 
190. Prolonged use of cocaine: 



A. can produce schizophrenia-like symptoms, including bizarre paranoid ideas and hallucinated sensations of insects crawling under the person's skin. 


B. can depress the respiratory centers in the brain. 


C. in pregnant women is the second most common cause of mental retardation in children. 


D. can intensify and trigger strong allergic reactions to common airborne allergens.


E.


Answer: A 
191. For several weeks, Wayne has been taking increasing amounts of amphetamines to keep up with his college schedule, full-time job, and other responsibilities. Wayne is running the risk of developing: 



A. stimulant-induced psychosis. 


B. delirium tremens. 


C. endorphin rebound. 


D. jet lag symptoms.


E.


Answer: A 
192. The term _____ means "mind manifesting" and refers to a class of drugs that create profound perceptual distortions, alters mood, and affec
Answer: D 
193. The peyote cactus is the source of: 

A. cocaine. 


B. psilocybin. 


C. LSD. 


D. mescaline. 


E.


Answer: D 
194. Mescaline and psilocybin are similar in that both: 



A. are amphetamines. 


B. have been used for centuries. 


C. are almost identical to the chemical THC. 


D. trigger hypnagogic hallucinations. 


E.


Answer: B 
195. LSD: 



A. is derived from lithium acid diphosphate, a chemical found in underground hot springs. 


B. is less potent than mescaline in the effects that are produced. 


C. was legal in the United States until 1914. 


D. use over time does not produce physical dependence on the drug. 


E.


Answer: D 
196. The active ingredient in marijuana is: 



A. serotonin. 


B. lysergic acid diethylamide. 


C. THC. 


D. psilocybin. 


E.


Answer: C 
197. Chronic, long-term use of marijuana is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: 



A. tolerance. 


B. problems with memory and learning. 


C. withdrawal symptoms, including irritability, restlessness, insomnia, and tremors. 


D. violent or aggressive outbursts. 


E.


Answer: D 
198. LSD and psilocybin: 



A. mimic the neurotransmitter serotonin. 


B. can be derived from the peyote cactus. 


C. rapidly produce drug tolerance and addiction. 


D. were first synthesized as potential pain killers in the 1960s. 


E.


Answer: A 
199. Which of the following statements about marijuana is FALSE? 



A. Most marijuana users do not develop tolerance or physical dependence. 


B. Marijuana has been used medically in the treatment of cancer, asthma, and pain. 


C. Low to moderate doses of marijuana produce psychedelic experiences very similar to those produced by mescaline and LSD. 


D. Hashish is a potent form of marijuana. 


E.


Answer: C 
200. What drug category includes a variety of designer drugs that are popular at all-night dance parties? 



A. the stimulant anesthetics 


B. opiates 


C. the club drugs 


D. barbiturates 


E.


Answer: C 
201. Which of the following is NOT described as a side-effect of MDMA (ecstasy) in your textbook? 



A. shock and hypothermia (abnormally low body temperature) 


B. dehydration and hyperthermia (abnormally high body temperature) 


C. brain damage 


D. tremors, muscle tension, and teeth-clenching 


E.


Answer: A 
202. The drug MDMA or ecstasy produces a combination of: 



A. depressant and emotional effects. 


B. dissociation and depersonalization effects. 


C. psychedelic and depressant effects. 


D. stimulant, psychedelic, and emotional effects. 


E.


Answer: D 
203. Brandy is fond of attending all-night raves at a dance club near her home.  Some of the raves are drug-free, but at one rave she saw a friend who was sweating profusely, chewing ice and a plastic pacifier, drinking large quantities of water, and hugging everyone in reach as he proclaimed his love for all humanity. Brandy suspected that her friend was probably high on _____. 



A. PCP 


B. Cocaine 


C. Alcohol 


D. MDMA (ecstasy) 


E.


Answer: D 
204. The emotional effects of MDMA (ecstasy) seem to be due to the fact that it: 



A. floods the brain with serotonin. 


B. depletes the brain's supply of dopamine. 


C. prolongs the action of acetylcholine in the brain. 


D. depletes the brain's supply of GABA. 


E.


Answer: A 
205. Moderate or heavy use of MDMA (ecstasy) can lead to irreversible damage to the brain's _____ system. 



A. dopamine 


B. anandamide 


C. serotonin 


D. endorphin 


E.


Answer: C 
206. PCP and ketamine are both classified as: 



A. dissociative anesthetics. 


B. opiates. 


C. barbiturates. 


D. stimulants. 


E.


Answer: A 
207. Kenyon was picked up by police after he became extremely violent and aggressive at a street party.  After he attacked two of the police officers, they put handcuffs on him but he seemed invulnerable to pain.  Even after he was put in the back of the squad car, he was completely disoriented and seemed to have no idea where he was. Kenyon was probably under the influence of which of the following drugs? 



A. Marijuana 


B. MDMA (ecstasy) 


C. Heroin 


D. PCP (phencyclidine) 


E.


Answer: D 
208. Angela hates getting up in the morning and takes a long time to feel alert once she does get up. According to the Application section, one way for Angela to deal effectively with her sleep inertia would be to: 



A. take a melatonin supplement upon awakening. 


B. try to get up fifteen minutes earlier than usual. 


C. avoid sunlight. 


D. adopt a 25-hour daily schedule. 


E.


Answer: B 
209. According to the Application section, the "forbidden zone for sleep": 



A. is the presleep burst of wakefulness. 


B. is a myth. 


C. is most apparent among people who work rotating shifts. 


D. occurs approximately one hour later each day. 


E.


Answer: A 
210. You have been sleeping poorly for a few days and are determined to get a good night's sleep. According to the Application section, which of the following will NOT improve the quality of your sleep? 



A. a light snack before going to bed 


B. soaking in a very warm bath 


C. taking a brisk walk right after lunch 


D. moderate exercise shortly before going to bed 


E.


Answer: D 
211. Gail works a rotating shift schedule at the hospital. According to the Application section, Gail should try to arrange her shift changes so that she: 



A. progresses from night to evening to day shifts. 


B. progresses from day to evening to night shifts. 


C. consistently switches shifts every two weeks. 


D. consistently switches shifts every week. 


E.


Answer: B