1. The term sensation formally refers to: A. a vague feeling of excitement or pleasure. B. the process of detecting a physical stimulus. C. the transformation of physical energy into chemical energy. D. the interpretation and organization of sensory stimuli. Answer: B 2. In contrast to sensation, the term perception is formally defined as the: A. active mental process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory data. B. ability to understand the feelings of others. C. active mental process of understanding the meaning of a difficult new concept. D. way in which different areas of the brain interact. Answer: A 3. In order to answer this test item, you must read the words on the page. Detecting the black marks on the page relies on the process of _____, and the ability to interpret these black lines and curves as letters and words involves the process of _____. A. sensory threshold; sensory receptors B. sensation; perception C. writing; reading D. sensory capacity; sensory adaptation Answer: B 4. At what point is the brain first involved in the sensation-perception process? A. at the point of sensation B. at the point of transduction C. at the point of perception D. at the point of sensory reception Answer: C 5. What makes sensation possible? A. perception B. absolute thresholds C. Weber's law D. sensory receptors Answer: D 6. The process by which physical energy, such as light, is converted into a coded neural signal that can be transmitted to and interpreted by the brain is called: A. transduction. B. gate control theory. C. sensation. D. the energy transfer effect. Answer: A 7. When sensory receptors convert different forms of energy into neural signals, the process is known as: A. transferal of energy. B. transduction. C. sensory accommodation. D. relative to absolute threshold conversion. Answer: B 8. You catch the whiff of freshly popped popcorn as you enter the movie theater. The process by which the odor of popcorn is converted into neural signals that your brain can interpret as the smell of popcorn is called: A. sensory adaptation. B. neural transfer. C. transduction. D. accommodation. Answer: C 9. Sensation results when sensory receptor cells are stimulated by: A. some form of physical energy. B. substance P. C. messages transmitted from the brain. D. monocular cues. Answer: A 10. The _____ refers to the smallest possible stimulus that can be detected half the time, or the minimum level of stimuli that we can detect. A. Weber's threshold B. absolute threshold C. just noticeable difference, or difference threshold D. perceptual threshold Answer: B 11. The smallest possible difference between two stimuli that can be detected is called the: A. difference threshold, or just noticeable difference. B. sensory adaptation principle. C. transduction principle. D. original incoming stimuli. Answer: A 12. When Andrew had his hearing tested, some sounds were too soft for him to detect. These sounds were below his _____ for hearing. A. difference threshold B. sensory threshold C. Weber's threshold D. subliminal threshold Answer: B 13. A large group of students were tested for their ability to distinguish among different tones. Although tone A and tone B were slightly different, more than half of the group thought that they sounded exactly the same. The difference between tone A and tone B can be said to be less than the: A. difference threshold, or just noticeable difference. B. absolute threshold, or average absolute threshold. C. subliminal threshold. D. Weber's threshold. Answer: A 14. When you were younger, you probably had your hearing checked. Headphones were placed over your ears and you were to respond when you heard a sound. You were being tested for your hearing A. threshold. B. sensory adaptation. C. accommodation potential. D. transduction. Answer: A 15. As you go to sleep at night, you realize that you can hear your roommate's wristwatch ticking. Out of curiosity, you keep a record of when you hear the watch ticking and find out that you can hear it about half the time. Your ability to hear your roommate's wristwatch about half the time is an example of: A. a difference threshold. B. an absolute threshold. C. Weber's law. D. sensory adaptation. Answer: B 16. According to _____, whether we can detect a change in the strength of a stimulus depends upon the intensity of the original stimulus. A. the principle of sensory adaptation B. the principle of absolute threshold C. Weber's law D. the principle of just noticeable difference Answer: C 17. John puts one toe into the swimming pool and shivers because the water is so cold. He grits his teeth and dives in anyway. After about ten minutes, the temperature of the water seems quite comfortable to him. This example illustrates the principle of: A. sensory difference. B. just noticeable difference, or jnd. C. relative threshold. D. sensory adaptation. Answer: D 18. Jill runs a hot bath. She starts to get into the tub but the water feels extremely hot. She stands in the hot water for a few moments, then slowly sits down, easing the rest of her body into the water. After a few minutes, she feels quite comfortable; the water no longer feels too hot to her. Jill has experienced: A. sensory anesthesia. B. sensory numbing. C. sensory adaptation. D. Weber's law. Answer: C 19. As you walk into an Indian restaurant, you immediately notice the delicious odors of curry, saffron, and other spices. After a few minutes, however, you no longer notice the smell. This experience is an example of: A. sensory deprivation. B. sensory adaptation. C. anosmia. D. Weber's law. Answer: B 20. Perception that is below the threshold of conscious perception is called: A. absolute perception. B. ESP. C. Weber's perception. D. subliminal perception. Answer: D 21. As the manager of a food store, your friend is trying to come up with ways of increasing sales of items that have a high profit margin. He decides that he is going to embed subliminal messages to buy certain items in music playing in the store. What do you predict will happen to the sales of the items that are subliminally advertised? A. There will be a significant increase in the sales of those subliminally advertised items. B. There will be no real change in the sales of those subliminally advertised items. C. There will be a significant decrease in the sales of those subliminally advertised items. D. There will be a significant decrease in the sales of all items, whether they were subliminally advertised or not. Answer: B 22. Recent research using subliminal perception has shown that: A. subliminally presenting pictures of people in a pleasant context can influence how others judge those people when they are presented in a neutral context. B. people are more strongly affected by subliminally presented product advertisements than by regular advertisements. C. we tend to avoid products that are subliminally advertised, regardless of whether the subliminal advertisement is pleasant or unpleasant. D. people are much more affected by subliminal messages about products than they are about endorsements of products by celebrities. Answer: A 23. The mere exposure effect: A. refers to the fact that when people are repeatedly exposed to a novel stimulus, their liking for that particular stimulus will decrease. B. works when the particular stimulus presented is very familiar to the observer. C. holds true for subliminal exposure to stimuli as well as nonsubliminal exposure to stimuli. D. is another example of pseudoscience, much like subliminal perception. Answer: C 24. Psychologists have found that the effects of subliminal stimuli tend to be: A. weak and short-lived. B. weak but long-lasting. C. fairly strong but short-lived. D. fairly strong and long-lasting. Answer: A 25. The sensory receptor cells for vision are sensitive to what kind of stimulus? A. light B. heat C. electricity D. chemical Answer: A 26. When psychologists refer to the visible spectrum, they mean: A. red, orange, and yellow light waves. B. the visual field, including peripheral vision. C. ultraviolet rays, gamma rays, and radio waves. D. the narrow range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye. Answer: D 27. X-rays, radio waves, microwaves, and ultraviolet waves are all forms of _____ that differ in terms of their _____. A. electromagnetic energy; absolute threshold B. wavelengths; intensity C. electromagnetic energy; wavelength D. sensation; absolute threshold Answer: C 28. The clear membrane that covers the outside of the eye and helps gather and direct incoming light is called the: A. pupil. B. cornea. C. iris. D. retina. Answer: B 29. The muscle that controls the amount of light entering the pupil is the: A. iris. B. cornea. C. retina. D. fovea. Answer: A 30. As you walk into a brightly lit room, the black structure in the center of your eye seems to shrink to a tiny black dot. This response is caused by the action of the eye structure called the: A. cornea. B. lens. C. iris. D. retina. Answer: C 31. Light first passes through which three structures of the eye? A. pupil, iris, lens B. cornea, iris, pupil C. cornea, pupil, lens D. fovea, iris, pupil Answer: C 32. As you glance at the person sitting next to you in class, light reflected from the person's shirt first passes through which three structures of your eye? A. pupil, iris, lens B. cornea, iris, pupil C. cornea, pupil, lens D. fovea, iris, pupil Answer: C 33. The _____ thickens or thins to focus incoming light; this process is called _____. A. lens; accommodation B. iris; sensory adaptation C. pupil; accommodation D. pupil; sensory adaptation Answer: A 34. The name of the pseudoscience that claims to diagnose health problems from the appearance of the colored portion of the eye is: A. ophthalmology. B. iridology. C. retinology. D. holistic optometry. Answer: B 35. Research on the effectiveness of "reading" a person's iris to diagnose disease has shown that: A. kidney disease can be diagnosed using this method more accurately than with other, more complicated methods to evaluate kidney function. B. nutritional deficiencies, genetic tendencies, and past diseases can be diagnosed accurately with this method. C. this method is as effective as traditional diagnostic methods for circulatory and respiratory conditions, but not for other diseases. D. this method has no scientific basis and has not been scientifically supported. Answer: D 36. When ophthalmologists and iridologists were compared in their ability to diagnose kidney disease from examining the iris: A. the ophthalmologists were right about 98% of the time, while the iridologists were right about 25% of the time. B. both the ophthalmologists and the iridologists were unable to diagnose kidney disease at a rate any higher than chance. C. the iridologists were significantly more successful than the ophthalmologists. D. both the iridologists and the ophthalmologists were able to diagnose kidney disease with a high degree of accuracy, over 85% of the time. Answer: B 37. Both Myra and Ben have worn glasses since they were children, but Myra is extremely nearsighted, and Ben is extremely farsighted. Both Myra and Ben have: A. abnormally shaped eyeballs. B. abnormally shaped retinas. C. malfunctioning cones. D. malfunctioning bipolar cells. Answer: A 38. What causes nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism? A. The blind spot is abnormally large or small. B. Incoming light signals are not properly focused on the retina. C. The iris and cornea do not function properly. D. Accommodation does not take place. Answer: B 39. Jake is nearsighted, and his cousin Janelle is farsighted. Their visual problems are caused by the fact that: A. images are not properly focused on the retina. B. the cornea is clouded due to age or disease. C. the size of the blind spot has increased. D. the pupil no longer dilates in dim light. Answer: A 40. A common form of farsightedness occurs in middle age in which the lenses in the eyes become brittle and inflexible. This disorder is known as: A. myopia. B. astigmatism. C. hyperopia. D. presbyopia. Answer: D 41. In _____, an abnormally curved eyeball results in blurry vision for lines in a particular direction. A. presbyopia B. astigmatism C. myopia D. hyperopia Answer: B 42. In a condition called _____, a misshapen eyeball causes light from distant objects to be focused at a point in front of the retina. A. anosmia B. hyperopia or farsightedness C. astigmatism. D. myopia or nearsightedness. Answer: D 43. Bob had perfect vision until he was 45, and then needed to start wearing glasses for reading. Most likely, Bob has developed a visual problem called: A. presbyopia, caused by the lens of the eye losing its flexibility. B. astigmatism, caused by a gradual shrinking of the eyeball. C. myopia, caused by a thickening of the cornea. D. hyperopia, caused by the eyeball becoming elongated. Answer: A 44. Ron's eyeball is abnormally shaped, and incoming light is focused at a point behind his retina. Ron wears glasses to correct this visual condition, which is called: A. astigmatism. B. myopia or nearsightedness C. anosmia or night blindness. D. hyperopia or farsightedness. Answer: D 45. How do glasses correct visual problems? A. By amplifying the frequencies of incoming light waves, which magnifies and enlarges the image that falls on the retina. B. By intercepting and bending incoming light waves so that they are focused properly on the retina. C. Looking through the corrective lenses exercises the muscles of the eye, aligning the eye structures properly. D. The corrective lenses diffuse the incoming light, which causes the pupil to widen and let in more light waves, enhancing visual acuity. Answer: B 46. The sensory receptors for vision are: A. found in the pupil. B. the rods and cones of the retina. C. the lens and cornea. D. distributed throughout the inner eye. Answer: B 47. Each eye contains about _____ rods and about _____ cones. A. 7 million; 125 million B. 25; 200 C. 1 million; 3 million D. 125 million; 7 million Answer: D 48. Rods are used for vision in _____ light, and cones are used for vision in _____ light. A. retinal; fovea B. black; white C. dim; bright D. colorful; black and white Answer: C 49. Rods are most prevalent in which area of the eye? A. the periphery or edges of the retina B. the fovea or center of the retina C. the pupil D. the cornea and lens Answer: A 50. The visual sensory receptor cells that transform light energy into a neural signal are the: A. bipolar cells in the blind spot. B. pupil and lens. C. corneal cells in the optic nerve. D. rods and cones in the retina. Answer: D 51. Identify the sequence that correctly represents the path taken by light signals through the eye. A. lens, pupil, accommodation, retina B. cornea, pupil, lens, retina C. cornea, lens, iris, retina D. lens, iris, retina, pupil Answer: B 52. Which type of sensory receptors are involved in color vision? A. trichromatic cells B. cones but not rods C. rods but not cones D. both rods and cones Answer: B 53. The thin, light-sensitive membrane that lies at the back of the eye and contains the sensory receptors for light is the _____. A. fovea B. optic disk C. retina D. ganglion cells Answer: C 54. What happens when rods and cones are exposed to light? A. They undergo accommodation. B. They undergo a chemical reaction that results in a neural signal. C. They become more light-sensitive and thus cause an increase in visual acuity. D. They create problems with dark adaptation in the fovea. Answer: B 55. Rods are to cones as _____ is to _____. A. slow adaptation; quick adaptation B. fovea; periphery C. less sensitive to light; more sensitive to light D. distinct; blurry Answer: A 56. Rods and cones are: A. the sensory receptor cells for vision, found in the retina. B. the sensory receptor cells for hearing, found in the cochlea. C. the tiny bones of the middle ear. D. the sensory receptor cells for taste, embedded in the taste buds. Answer: A 57. Cones are most concentrated in the: A. periphery of the eye. B. optic disk. C. optic chiasm. D. fovea. Answer: D 58. As you look up at the stars at night, it is easier to see very dim stars if you do not look directly at them. Given your knowledge of the eye, how would you explain this? A. When you look directly at images, the images fall on the blind spot, which is rich in rods. B. When you do not look directly at an image, you are using your rods, which are not sensitive to dim light. C. When you look directly at images, you are using your rods, which are most abundant in the fovea. D. When you do not look directly at images, the images fall on the periphery, which is rich in rods. Answer: D 59. What is the optic disk? A. a tiny spot in the center of the fovea where there is a high concentration of rods and cones B. the portion of the lens which focuses incoming light C. the point at which the optic nerve fibers leave the back of the eye D. a transparent membrane that lies just behind the pupil of the eye and which helps funnel light waves to the lens and retina Answer: C 60. What does the optic disk cause? A. our color vision B. our night vision C. our blind spot D. our light adaptation Answer: C 61. The blind spot: A. increases in size with age. B. is caused by nearsightedness. C. is a small gap in our field of vision. D. can be cured with laser surgery. Answer: C 62. The blind spot is caused by: A. diabetes. B. the absence of rods or cones at the point where the optic nerve leaves the eye. C. malformation of the eyeball. D. degeneration of the optic nerve. Answer: B 63. We have a blind spot in our field of vision, but we ordinarily don't notice it. What "fills in" the missing visual information? A. the bipolar cells B. the optic disk C. the ganglion cells D. the brain Answer: D 64. The _____ developed from brain tissue and combine, analyze, and encode visual information in the retina. A. ganglion cells B. bipolar cells C. cones D. trichromatic cells Answer: A 65. Each _____ cell receives information from its receptive field, which is _____. A. bipolar; made up rods but not cones B. ganglion; a particular area of the retina C. ganglion; a particular area of the iris D. bipolar; the rods and cones that connect to that bipolar cell Answer: B 66. From which of the following does the brain receive much less detailed visual information? A. the lens B. the optic nerve C. rods D. cones Answer: C 67. Rods are to cones as _____ is(are) to _____. A. less specific visual information; more specific visual information B. color; bright light conditions C. bipolar cells; ganglion cells D. the iris; the pupil Answer: A 68. Information from the rods and cones is first collected by which type of specialized neuron? A. ganglion cells B. blind spot cells C. bipolar cells D. corneal cells Answer: C 69. A ganglion cell might receive information from a hundred _____, but from only one or two _____. A. rods; cones B. cones; rods C. bipolar cells; retinal spots D. bipolar cells; corneal cells Answer: A 70. Visual acuity is highest when images are focused on the fovea because of the high concentration of _____ in that region. A. rods B. bipolar cells C. cones D. peripheral cells Answer: C 71. What region of the eye has the largest concentration of cones? A. the periphery B. the iris C. the optic nerve D. the fovea Answer: D 72. Your friend shows you an old coin that he found in his great-grandfather's attic. To examine it, you instinctively bring the coin close to your eye and to the very center of your visual field. Why? A. Visual acuity is highest in the region with the largest concentration of rods, which is the fovea at the very center of the eye. B. Visual acuity is highest in the region with the largest concentration of cones, which is the fovea at the very center of the eye. C. You want to avoid focusing the image on your blind spot. D. You want to overcome your farsightedness. Answer: B 73. Which of the following is most involved with visual acuity? A. rods B. cones C. bipolar cells D. ganglion cells Answer: B 74. Axons from the _____ are bundled together to form the _____. A. bipolar cells; optic chiasm B. photoreceptors; optic nerve C. rods and cones; optic chiasm D. ganglion cells; optic nerve Answer: D 75. The optic chiasm is: A. the junction of the ganglion and bipolar cells. B. the point at which the optic nerve fibers from each eye meet and cross over to opposite sides of the brain. C. the point in the visual field where peripheral vision begins. D. the place where the optic nerve exits the back of the eye, causing a blind spot or gap in vision. Answer: B 76. From the optic chiasm, visual information travels first to the _____. A. visual cortex B. thalamus C. optic nerve D. feature detectors Answer: B 77. From the optic chiasm, the PRIMARY visual pathway projects first to the _____ and processes information about _____. A. midbrain; location of objects. B. thalamus; form, color, brightness, and depth of objects. C. temporal lobe; movement, speed, and direction of objects D. optic disk; shape, size, and distance of objects Answer: B 78. The SECONDARY visual pathway projects first to the _____ and processes information about _____. A. midbrain; location of objects B. thalamus; form, color, brightness, and depth of objects. C. parietal lobe; movement, speed, and direction of objects D. optic disk; shape, size, and distance of objects Answer: A 79. The primary visual pathway is to _____ as the secondary pathway is to _____. A. brightness and depth; angles and lines B. the location of an object; form and color C. form and color; the location of an object D. angles and lines; brightness and depth Answer: C 80. From the thalamus, visual signals are sent to the _____, where they are interpreted. A. midbrain B. temporal lobe C. visual cortex D. optic chiasm Answer: C 81. Feature detectors are: A. the light-sensitive receptors that signal the pupil to expand or contract. B. highly specialized receptor cells in the retina that respond to particular wavelengths of light. C. the highly specialized receptor cells found in some insects and reptiles that respond to invisible ultraviolet or infrared light waves. D. highly specialized neurons in the visual cortex that respond to particular types of visual stimuli. Answer: D 82. Where would you expect to find visual feature detectors? A. in the optic chiasm B. in the thalamus C. in the auditory cortex D. in the visual cortex Answer: D 83. Identify the sequence that correctly traces the transmission of visual information from the eye to the brain. A. retina, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve, thalamus, visual cortex B. retina, optic nerve, ganglion cells, visual cortex, thalamus C. retina, optic nerve, thalamus, bipolar cells, visual cortex D. retina, ganglion cells, optic nerve, bipolar cells, thalamus, visual cortex Answer: A 84. The Focus on Neuroscience feature describes a study in which researchers used functional magnetic resonance imaging to measure brain activity of volunteers as they looked at different objects. In general, what region of the brain was activated when the volunteers looked at different objects? A. the primary cortex B. the olfactory cortex C. the secondary cortex D. the extrastriate cortex Answer: D 85. The Focus on Neuroscience feature describes a study in which researchers used functional magnetic resonance imaging to measure brain activity of volunteers as they looked at different objects. By looking at the brain scan images, researchers were able to identify the object the volunteer had looked at when the scan was made. How? A. Different objects activated single neurons in completely different brain regions. B. Each object activated a distinct, unique pattern of brain activity, although they did so within the same general brain region. C. Along with recording brain activity, the imaging technology that was used also takes a snapshot of the visual field. D. The exact moment of the scan was synchronized with the timing of the photo sequence. Answer: B 86. The Focus on Neuroscience feature describes a study in which neuroscientist James Haxby and his colleagues used functional magnetic resonance imaging to measure brain activity of volunteers as they looked at different objects. Which of the following statements represents a general conclusion that was reached in this study? A. Inanimate objects are perceived in different parts of the brain than inanimate objects. B. Perceiving any kind of object involves the activation of a single tiny cluster of neurons in the brain. C. Multiple brain areas are activated when people perceive objects, and even simple visual tasks rely on the integrated interaction of different brain areas. D. Feature detectors in the visual cortex are not as highly specialized as researchers once believed; a single neuron can respond to more than one type of object. Answer: C 87. The Focus on Neuroscience feature describes a study in which researchers used functional magnetic resonance imaging to measure brain activity of volunteers as they looked at different objects. It also describes the findings of other researchers and refers to an ongoing debate among vision researchers. What is the essence of that debate? A. Whether neuroscientists can truly read minds. B. Whether the brain organizes information in discrete modules or subregions or distributes it across overlapping brain areas. C. Whether the thalamus or the midbrain is more strongly activated by pictures of animate versus inanimate objects. D. Whether the extrastriate body area is part of the visual cortex or part of the frontal cortex. Answer: B 88. _____ light contains all the wavelengths and thus all the colors of the visible spectrum. A. Ultraviolet B. Red C. Black D. White Answer: D 89. The three properties of color are: A. tone, brightness, and shade. B. hue, saturation, and brightness. C. black, white, and primary. D. saturation, primary hue, and secondary tone. Answer: B 90. The perception of different colors, such as red, green, or blue, is caused by: A. the activation of specialized rods in the retina. B. the amplitude or intensity of light waves. C. different wavelengths of light. D. the degree of saturation of the light wave. Answer: C 91. The perceived color of an object is determined by the: A. wavelength of light that an object reflects. B. activation of bipolar cells in the cornea. C. activation of rods in the retina of the eye. D. intensity of the light wave that strikes the pupil. Answer: A 92. According to the trichromatic theory of color vision: A. there are three basic colors, or wavelengths. B. cones come in three basic varieties: red-sensitive, green-sensitive, or blue-sensitive. C. cones respond to either red-green or blue-yellow. D. there are three types of rods, each responsive to a different color. Answer: B 93. According to the trichromatic theory of color vision, people who have red-green color blindness have: A. far fewer cones than people with normal color vision. B. normal red-sensitive cones, but lack blue-sensitive cones. C. normal blue-sensitive cones, but their other cones are sensitive to either red or green but not both. D. color receptors that are limited to the blue-yellow opponent pair. Answer: C 94. Marcel has red-green color blindness. In other words, Marcel: A. sees the world in shades of red and green. B. sees the world in shades of blue and yellow. C. sees the world in shades of black, white, and gray. D. cannot tell the difference between red and green. Answer: D 95. Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the trichromatic theory of color vision? A. afterimages B. red-green color blindness C. the blind spot D. glow-in-the-dark paint Answer: B 96. According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, the types of color receptors are: A. red/green, blue/yellow, and black/white. B. red/blue, green/yellow, and black/white. C. red, blue, green, and yellow. D. red, yellow, and blue. Answer: A 97. According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Red-green color blindness is caused by the absence of the red-green opponent pair. B. Cones are sensitive to either red, green, yellow, or blue. C. Red and blue receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. D. Red and green receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. Answer: D 98. Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the opponent-process theory of color vision? A. afterimages B. red-green color blindness C. the blind spot D. glow-in-the-dark paint Answer: A 99. Sensory adaptation plays a role in which of the following visual phenomena? A. color blindness B. hyperopia or far-sightedness C. myopia or near-sightedness D. afterimages. Answer: D 100. The opponent-process theory of color vision correctly describes the process of color sensation in the: A. retina. B. retina, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells. C. ganglion cells, thalamus, and visual cortex. D. bipolar cells. Answer: C 101. The trichromatic theory of color vision describes the process of color sensation in the: A. brain. B. retina, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells. C. retina. D. bipolar cells. Answer: C 102. Color processing in the thalamus is best explained by: A. the opponent-process theory. B. the trichromatic theory. C. rods and cones in the retina. D. ganglion and bipolar cells in the retina. Answer: A 103. Trichromatic theory is to _____ as opponent-process theory is to _____. A. the thalamus; ganglion cells B. the visual cortex; cones C. ganglion cells; the visual cortex D. cones; ganglion cells Answer: D 104. Which theory best explains color vision in humans? A. the trichromatic theory B. the opponent-process theory C. both the opponent-process theory and the trichromatic theory D. Neither the opponent-process theory nor the trichromatic theory adequately explains human color vision. Answer: C 105. The sense of hearing is also known as: A. gustation. B. audition. C. olfaction. D. kinesthesia. Answer: B 106. Our perception of sound is directly related to the physical properties of: A. sound waves. B. light waves. C. electromagnetic waves. D. chemical substances. Answer: A 107. Loudness is determined by the: A. amplitude or intensity of a sound wave. B. number of sound waves per second. C. number of wave peaks per second. D. timbre of the sound wave. Answer: A 108. Loudness is to _____ as pitch is to _____. A. frequency; timbre B. complexity; amplitude C. high; low D. amplitude; frequency Answer: D 109. Pitch is determined by the: A. intensity or amplitude of a sound wave. B. decibel level of a sound wave. C. frequency or rate of vibration of a sound wave. D. complexity of the sound wave. Answer: C 110. You're waiting to cross a busy city street as a city bus pulls up to the curb. As the driver stops the bus, the brakes squeal loudly. A few people get on, and then the bus pulls away from the curb. As the bus accelerates, the engine labors into gear and exhaust fumes spew out the back. The high-pitched squeal of the brakes was caused by _____ sound waves, and the equally loud but low-pitched roar of the engine was caused by _____ sound waves. A. low velocity; high velocity B. high frequency; low frequency C. auditory; complex D. high amplitude; low amplitude Answer: B 111. Most of the sounds that we hear are: A. within the medium range of frequencies. B. simple, consisting of a single frequency. C. complex, consisting of several frequencies. D. just slightly above the sensory threshold for sound. Answer: C 112. While you are blindfolded, you are asked to identify the voices of five of your friends. You're able to do so because you recognize the distinctive _____ of each voice. A. timbre B. amplitude C. decibel D. loudness Answer: A 113. Timbre refers to the distinctive quality of a sound, which is produced by a: A. particular combination of amplitude and intensity. B. particular combination of different frequencies. C. sound's decibel level. D. high-frequency sound wave. Answer: B 114. What units are used to measure the loudness of sound? A. timbre B. frequencies C. decibels D. pitch Answer: C 115. In general, sound waves are _____ in the outer ear and _____ in the middle ear. A. amplified; transduced B. amplified; collected C. transduced; collected D. collected; amplified Answer: D 116. The primary function of the _____ is to catch sound waves and funnel them into the ear canal. A. pinna B. eardrum C. middle ear D. basilar membrane Answer: A 117. The outer ear refers to the: A. earlobe and eardrum. B. pinna and earlobe. C. timbre, earlobe, and skin. D. pinna, ear canal, and eardrum. Answer: D 118. The primary function of the outer ear is to: A. collect sound waves and funnel them into the ear canal. B. protect the delicate inner structures of the ear from loud sounds. C. provide a convenient place for wearing earrings. D. transfer sounds to the cochlear membrane. Answer: A 119. What separates the outer ear from the middle ear? A. the pinna B. the basilar membrane C. the oval membrane D. the eardrum Answer: D 120. What causes the eardrum to vibrate? A. vibrations transmitted by the oval window B. the vibration of the hammer and anvil C. sound waves that are funneled down the ear canal D. the rippling of the basilar membrane Answer: C 121. The primary function served by the middle ear is to: A. collect sound waves. B. mute loud sounds. C. amplify the vibration of sound waves. D. help pinpoint the location of sounds. Answer: C 122. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are: A. three large bones in the outer ear. B. three tiny bones in the middle ear. C. bones that encase the ear canal, protecting it from damage. D. three tiny bones in the cochlea. Answer: B 123. The purpose of the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is to: A. increase the amplification of sound and transmit the vibration to the eardrum. B. diminish the amplification of sound and transmit the vibration to the oval window. C. increase the amplification of sound and transmit the amplified vibration to the oval window. D. separate high frequency and low frequency sounds. Answer: C 124. What happens when the tiny bones of the middle ear become damaged or brittle, as they do in older age? A. The hair cells degenerate. B. Conduction deafness may result. C. The oval window tends to vibrate with greater intensity. D. The basilar membrane also becomes brittle. Answer: B 125. Mrs. McGillicuddy is an active 80-year-old, but has trouble hearing. Her hearing improves after she is fitted with a hearing aid. Mrs. McGillicuddy is suffering from _____ deafness, which was probably caused by _____. A. nerve; exposure to very loud noise B. conduction; damage to the pinna of her left ear C. conduction; the hammer, anvil, and stirrup becoming brittle D. nerve; deterioration of the auditory nerve Answer: C 126. Separating the middle ear from the inner ear is a structure called the: A. middle membrane. B. oval window. C. rear window. D. cochlea. Answer: B 127. Vibrations from the oval window are relayed to the: A. eardrum. B. hair cells. C. pinna. D. cochlea. Answer: D 128. The inner ear includes which of the following structures? A. the pinna, cochlea, and stirrup B. the cochlea, basilar membrane, and hair cells C. the anvil, oval window, and inner window D. the eardrum, oval window, and basilar membrane Answer: B 129. From the cochlea, vibrations are transferred to the: A. basilar membrane. B. inner window. C. stirrup. D. middle ear. Answer: A 130. The basilar membrane: A. separates the middle ear from the inner ear. B. lies within the coiled cochlea. C. is part of the eardrum. D. is a structure within the middle ear. Answer: B 131. Sensory receptors for sound are the _____, and they are embedded in the _____. A. hair cells; eardrum B. hearing cells; basilar window C. hair cells; basilar membrane D. hearing cells; auditory nerve Answer: C 132. Nerve deafness is caused by: A. damage to the hair cells or auditory nerve. B. damage to the eardrum or oval window. C. damage to the delicate nerve endings in the pinna. D. stiffening of the basilar membrane. Answer: A 133. After many years of playing extremely loud rock music, Pete Townshend of the famous rock group The Who has suffered a significant hearing loss, which cannot be corrected with a hearing aid. Townshend is suffering from: A. nerve deafness. B. conduction deafness. C. a perforated eardrum. D. damage to the auditory cortex in the brain. Answer: A 134. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in hearing? A. inner ear, middle ear, outer ear B. pinna, ear canal, eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup, oval window, cochlea, basilar membrane, hair cells, auditory nerve C. pinna, ear canal, oval window, stirrup, anvil, hammer, cochlea, hair cells, basilar membrane D. pinna, ear canal, basilar membrane, eardrum, cochlea, oval window, anvil, hammer, stirrup, hair cells, auditory nerve Answer: B 135. There are two basic theoretical explanations of how we sense the pitch of a sound, frequency theory and place theory. Which theory best explains our sensation of sounds that have a pitch in the mid-range frequency? A. place theory B. frequency theory. C. neither place theory nor frequency theory can adequately explain how we sense sounds that are in the middle D. both place and frequency theory apply to the sensation of mid-range frequencies. Answer: D 136. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. After bouncing off the eardrum, sound waves are routed to the brain via the auditory nerve. B. Sound waves are amplified in the outer ear, collected in the inner ear, and transduced into neural messages in the middle ear. C. Sound waves are collected in the outer ear, translated in the middle ear, amplified in the inner ear, and transduced by the eardrum. D. Sound waves are collected in the outer ear, amplified in the middle ear, and transduced into neural messages in the inner ear. Answer: D 137. According to frequency theory, the basilar membrane: A. is unable to transmit high-frequency sounds. B. vibrates at three times the frequency of the sound wave. C. vibrates at the same frequency as the sound wave. D. is involved in the transmission of low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds. Answer: C 138. Frequency theory explains how we hear: A. high-frequency sounds. B. very low-frequency sounds that are below 500 hertz. C. very loud sounds, but not soft sounds. D. very soft sounds, but not loud sounds. Answer: B 139. According to place theory: A. the basilar membrane vibrates at the same frequency as the sound wave. B. different wave frequencies cause larger vibrations at different locations along the basilar membrane. C. low-frequency sounds are transduced in the middle ear, whereas high-frequency sounds are transduced in the inner ear. D. only one end of the basilar membrane is involved in detecting pitch. Answer: B 140. Place theory explains how we hear: A. high-frequency sounds. B. very low-frequency sounds that are below 500 hertz. C. very loud sounds, but not soft sounds. D. very soft sounds, but not loud sounds. Answer: A 141. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Place theory describes the perception of pitch; frequency theory describes the perception of loudness. B. Place theory explains how people hear low-pitched sounds, while frequency theory explains how people hear high-pitched sounds. C. Place theory explains how people hear high-pitched sounds, while frequency theory explains how people hear low-pitched sounds. D. Frequency theory explains the perception of both high-pitched and low-pitched sounds. Answer: C 142. Taste is to _____ as smell is to _____. A. olfaction; audition B. gustation; kinesthesia C. kinesthesia; proprioceptors D. gustation; olfaction Answer: D 143. Smell and taste receptors respond to what type of stimulus? A. light B. invisible electromagnetic waves C. chemical D. electrical Answer: C 144. The stimuli that produce the sensation of an odor are: A. molecules in the air. B. light waves. C. electromagnetic waves. D. olfactory neurons. Answer: A 145. Unlike the sensory receptor cells for hearing and vision, olfactory neurons: A. are replaced every 30 to 60 days. B. do not regenerate. C. are responsive to more than one kind of sensory stimulus. D. are linked directly to the thalamus. Answer: A 146. The word anosmia refers to: A. A temporary or permanent loss of sensation in the arms or legs. B. Loss of the olfactory sense. C. Loss of the ability to distinguish among different colors. D. A rare type of deafness, a condition in which people cannot distinguish between low-frequency and high- frequency sounds. Answer: B 147. The complete inability to detect odors: A. is extremely rare; less than one person in a million has this condition. B. is relatively common; about one person in 500 has this condition. C. is extremely common in people aged 70 and older. D. is very common in newborns and infants aged six months and younger. Answer: B 148. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. "Sharp" smells are sensed in a different area of the nose than "bitter" smells or "sweet" smells. B. There are thousands of different odor receptor cells, and each cell is specialized to activate in response to a single odor. C. Different odors are perceived in different regions of the brain. D. A particular odor stimulates a particular group of odor receptors. Answer: D 149. The olfactory nerve is made up of: A. the bundled axons of the olfactory receptor cells, the olfactory neurons. B. the bundled dendrites of the olfactory receptor cells, the olfactory neurons. C. specialized bipolar cells that are found only in the olfactory cortex. D. tough ganglion fibers that project from the nasal cavity to the parietal lobe. Answer: A 150. The olfactory neurons in your nose are unique in that they: A. do not demonstrate sensory adaptation to persistent stimuli. B. respond to multiple stimuli, including light waves and sound waves. C. regenerate approximately once every twelve months. D. extend directly into your brain. Answer: D 151. To identify a particular odor, the brain: A. interprets the pattern of odor receptor cells that are stimulated. B. determines the source of the odor. C. responds to the location and size of the particular receptor cell that has been stimulated. D. transfers neural messages to the thalamus for processing. Answer: A 152. The olfactory nerve transmits messages to the: A. thalamus. B. cochlea. C. olfactory bulb. D. ganglion cells. Answer: C 153. Axons from the olfactory nerve project directly to the: A. thalamus. B. olfactory cortex. C. somatosensory cortex. D. parietal lobe. Answer: B 154. The olfactory bulb is: A. the enlarged ending of the olfactory cortex. B. located at the base of the nasal cavity. C. made up of the receptors for smell. D. a tiny structure found on the tips of olfactory neuron fibers. Answer: A 155. Which part of the brain is thought to regulate the emotional response to odors? A. the thalamus B. the olfactory cortex C. the limbic system D. the occipital cortex Answer: C 156. The _____ is thought to be involved in our conscious recognition of smells. A. parietal lobe B. limbic system C. visual cortex D. temporal lobe Answer: D 157. At first, you can barely concentrate in your psychology class because the guy sitting behind you is wolfing down a hamburger smothered in onions for his lunch. After a minute, you no longer notice the smell of his sandwich because: A. the airborne molecules released by the onions have temporarily blocked your odor receptor cells. B. your thalamus is no longer processing olfactory signals. C. your odor receptor cells have increased in sensitivity. D. sensory adaptation has taken place. Answer: D 158. Which of the following is NOT associated with decreased olfactory function? A. a high-protein diet B. exposure to air pollution and smoking C. advanced age D. Parkinson's disease, schizophrenia, and Alzheimer's disease Answer: A 159. Which of the following general statements about olfactory function is TRUE? A. In collectivistic cultures, men tend to have a keener sense of smell than women, while the reverse is true in individualistic cultures. B. Although olfactory function tends to decline with age in both sexes, men tend to retain a keen sense of smell longer than women. C. In about three-quarters of men and women, olfactory function improves with age and experience, becoming more sensitive. D. In all cultures, women tend to have a keener sense of smell than men. Answer: D 160. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Humans have more olfactory receptor cells than any other animal. B. Human sensitivity to odors varies. C. Men are more sensitive to odors than are women. D. Mothers are unable to distinguish among their children by smelling their clothes or pillows. Answer: B 161. As you walk into your office, you are almost overwhelmed by the strong smell of the cologne that the copier repairman has doused himself with. Because you have studied this chapter, however, you reassure yourself that sensory adaptation will occur and you will become much less aware of the odor in approximately: A. twenty minutes. B. ten minutes. C. five minutes. D. a minute or less. Answer: D 162. Pheromones are: A. detected only by the female members of a species. B. chemical signals that affect the behavior of other members of the same species. C. the primary trigger for sexual arousal in humans. D. a myth; there are no such things as pheromones. Answer: B 163. Chemical signals have been shown to affect HUMAN hormones and behavior in which of the following phenomena? A. sexual attraction B. fighting among males, especially teenage males C. the regulation of the female menstrual cycle D. detecting the presence of a sexually receptive partner Answer: C 164. What is the evidence that sexual attraction in humans might be influenced by pheromones? A. Sexual attraction increases in females, but not males, following exposure to pheromones. B. Males are strongly affected by pheromones but not females. C. Both males and females show increased sexual attractiveness following exposure to pheromones. D. There is no evidence that pheromones affect sexual attraction in males or females. Answer: D 165. In an experiment testing the effects of human pheromones, men and women spent two hours filling out a tedious questionnaire after being exposed to minute amounts of male and female steroids. The researchers found that men who were exposed to: A. male steroids became more competitive, while men who were exposed to female steroids became sexually aroused. B. either male or female steroids became more competitive and aggressive. C. exposed to either male or female steroids experienced a deterioration in their mood. D. female steroids maintained a positive mood despite the frustrating task of filling out the questionnaire. Answer: C 166. In an experiment testing the effects of human pheromones, men and women spent two hours filling out a tedious questionnaire after being exposed to minute amounts of male and female steroids. The researchers found that women who were exposed to: A. female steroids became more competitive, while women who were exposed to male steroids became sexually aroused. B. either male or female steroids became more competitive and aggressive. C. either male or female steroids experienced a deterioration in their mood. D. either male or female steroids were able to maintain a positive mood despite the frustrating task of filling out the questionnaire. Answer: D 167. In a study described in Chapter 3, women were exposed to male steroids without their knowledge. The women could not consciously detect any odor. Compared to PET scans taken of the same women's brains before exposure, PET scans of the women's brains after they were exposed showed: A. no effect, demonstrating the lack of evidence for human pheromones. B. heightened activation of brain regions associated with sexual motivation, demonstrating the impact of male pheromones on women. C. heightened activation in brain regions associated with emotion, attention, and olfaction, despite the fact that the women could not consciously detect any odor. D. reduced activation in brain regions associated with sexual motivation, demonstrating that pheromones actually diminish sexual responsiveness. Answer: C 168. According to the In Focus box on pheromones, which of the following statements best summarizes the effects of pheromones on humans? A. Human chemosignals, or pheromones, play a profoundly important role in regulating sexual attraction and motivation. B. There is no evidence for the existence of human chemosignals or pheromones. C. Human chemosignals or pheromones exist, but they no longer have any measurable effect on any aspect of human behavior. D. Human chemosignals exist, but rather than triggering sexual behavior or being sexual signals, they seem to subliminally affect mood, emotional states, and social interactions and relationships. Answer: D 169. The sensation of taste results from the activation of receptor cells by what kind of stimuli? A. chemical substances dissolved in saliva B. electromagnetic energy C. airborne molecules D. food texture and temperature Answer: A 170. The specialized receptor cells for taste are found in the: A. nasal cavity. B. taste buds. C. cortex. D. thalamus. Answer: B 171. When activated, the taste receptors send messages to the: A. olfactory cortex. B. gustatory cortex. C. thalamus. D. hippocampus. Answer: C 172. Gustation is to olfaction as _____ is to _____. A. taste; smell B. audition; hearing C. smell; taste D. hearing; smell Answer: A 173. The primary tastes include: A. sweet, sour, vinegar, and citrus. B. sweet, sour, alkaline, acid, and salty. C. sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami (MSG). D. bland, sharp, sweet, salty, and umami (MSG). Answer: C 174. Complex tastes result from the activation of: A. a special kind of taste bud. B. temperature, flavor, and texture receptors. C. pacinian receptors. D. different combinations of basic taste receptors. Answer: D 175. The flavor of a food is due to: A. the activation of specialized receptors in the taste buds. B. the combination of aroma, taste, texture, and temperature. C. the proportion of sweet, sour, salty, and bitter tastes in a particular food. D. the relative responsiveness of different types of taste receptors. Answer: B 176. John brushed his teeth immediately before sitting down to a candlelit gourmet dinner. After toasting his honored guest, John took a sip of his favorite wine. But instead of savoring its delicate taste, John winced. To John, the wine tasted bitter, although his guests all praised its delicate taste. Assuming that there was nothing wrong with the wine, what is the most likely explanation for John's experience? A. John's sense of taste was disrupted by the pheromones being emitted by his attractive dinner companion. B. John's sense of taste was disrupted because he is allergic to the scented candles lighting the table. C. John is experiencing a gustatory hallucination. D. A chemical in John's toothpaste blocked his taste receptors that were responsive to sweet tastes. Answer: D 177. Devon wears glasses because he is extremely nearsighted. Shortly after he puts on his glasses in the morning, Devon no longer feels them on his face. How is this possible? A. Pacinian corpuscles found around the face respond to temperature, not to touch sensations. B. Constant pressure from Devon's glasses resulted in sensory adaptation of Devon's Pacinian corpuscles. C. Pacinian corpuscles around the face are not particularly sensitive. D. Devon is probably so busy that he fails to attend to his sense of gustation and thus does not feel his glasses. Answer: B 178. Pacinian corpuscles are receptors that respond to: A. warmth. B. pain. C. pressure. D. cold. Answer: C 179. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The receptors in the skin are sensitive only to pressure. B. The skin has only one type of sensory receptor. C. The skin is the largest and heaviest sense organ. D. Skin receptors, unlike receptors for other senses, do not adapt to a constant stimulus. Answer: C 180. What causes the sensation of an itch? A. mild stimulation of pain receptors. B. the simultaneous stimulation of hot receptors and Pacinian corpuscles. C. the stimulation of specialized itch-sensitive receptors by histamines. D. the simultaneous stimulation of pain receptors and Pacinian corpuscles. Answer: C 181. Hiking in the woods, you keep swatting at the irritating mosquitoes that land on your face. Later, you're surprised to discover a number of itchy mosquito bites on the backs of your legs. The reason you noticed the mosquitoes landing on your face but did not notice the mosquitoes landing on your legs is probably that: A. there are more sensory receptors in your facial skin than in the skin on the backs of your legs. B. there is no difference in sensitivity between the skin on your face and the skin on your legs, but you were able to hear the mosquitoes buzzing near your face, and you couldn't hear the mosquitoes that landed on your legs. C. there are no Pacinian corpuscles in the skin on your legs. D. heat from your leg muscles masked the sensation of biting mosquitoes. Answer: A 182. The sensation of warm temperature is produced by the stimulation of _____ spots, while the sensation of hot temperature is produced by the simultaneous stimulation of _____ spots. A. cold; warm and hot B. warm; warm and hot C. cold; cold and hot D. warm; warm and cold Answer: D 183. A classic demonstration involves two intertwined pipes, one of which is filled with cold water and one of which is filled with warm water. Grasping both pipes simultaneously with the same hand will produce the sensation of: A. hot B. cold C. lukewarm D. tingling Answer: A 184. According to the text, which body areas are the MOST sensitive to pain? A. The tip of your nose, soles of your feet, and balls of your thumbs B. Your ankles, your wrists, and your earlobes. C. The back of your knee, your neck, and the crook or bend of your elbows. D. Your fingertips, your toes, and your upper arms. Answer: C 185. According to the text, which body areas are the LEAST sensitive to pain? A. The tip of your nose, soles of your feet, and balls of your thumbs B. Your ankles, your wrists, and your earlobes. C. The back of your knee, your neck, and the bends your elbows. D. Your fingertips, your toes, and your upper arms. Answer: A 186. An influential theory for explaining the experience of pain is called the _____ theory of pain, which holds that the sensation of pain is controlled by a series of _____ in the spinal cord. A. substance P; neurotransmitters B. gate-control; gates C. psychological; axons D. thalamic-control; sensory receptors Answer: B 187. Pain begins when an intense stimulus activates sensory fibers called _____ in the skin, muscles, or internal organs. A. free nerve endings B. Pacinian corpuscles C. proprioceptors D. spinal cord gates Answer: A 188. A painful stimulus causes the release of what kind of neurotransmitter in the spinal cord? A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. substance P D. gate-opening substance Answer: C 189. According to gate-control theory, if the spinal "gates" are open, messages related to a painful stimulus are first sent to the _____ in the brain. A. cerebral cortex B. motor cortex C. thalamus D. olfactory cortex Answer: C 190. Which of the following factors has been shown to increase the experience of pain by signaling the spinal "gates" to open? A. anxiety and fear B. a sense of control C. cultural ideas about the meaning of pain D. laughter and positive emotions Answer: A 191. According to gate-control theory, psychological factors can affect the experience of pain because: A. the thalamus is very responsive to suggestion. B. the brain has the power to selectively block the responsiveness of particular free nerve endings. C. the brain sends signals down the spinal cord to either open or close the pain gates. D. stress blocks the release of endorphins. Answer: C 192. When Elliot was stung by a wasp, he became exceedingly anxious about having an allergic reaction to the wasp sting. According to the gate-control theory of pain, Elliot's anxiety would probably: A. increase the likelihood of infection. B. decrease the level of pain he experienced. C. increase the level of pain he experienced. D. have no impact on the level of pain he experienced. Answer: C 193. In the spinal cord, endorphins affect the pain response by: A. increasing heart rate, muscle tension, and breathing rate. B. inhibiting the transmission of pain signals. C. opening the "gates." D. inhibiting the release of substance P. Answer: D 194. Your friend Caitlin asks you why she experienced significant pain relief after undergoing several acupuncture treatments for a bad back injury. After reading this chapter, you are able to tell her that: A. she has experienced an illusory correlation--the acupuncture treatments had nothing to do with her decrease in pain. B. any relief she experienced was probably due to the power of suggestion, as acupuncture has been proven to be nothing more than a pseudoscience. C. acupuncture has been shown to decrease the responsiveness of the Pacinian corpuscles in the skin, and thus relieves pain. D. acupuncture stimulates the release of endorphins, and seems to somehow interrupt the transmission of pain signals. Answer: D 195. You are able to bring a cup to your lips and sip your coffee without looking at your face or hand because of your _____ sense. A. vestibular B. kinesthetic C. equilibrium D. visual Answer: B 196. Changes in your body position are sensed by specialized receptors located in your muscles and joints, which are called: A. kinesthetic receptors. B. vestibular sacs. C. proprioceptors. D. vestibular canals. Answer: C 197. In exercise class, your teacher instructs you to close your eyes and touch your toes. Your ability to touch your toes even though you can't see them is due to your _____ sense. A. vestibular B. auditory C. skin D. kinesthetic Answer: D 198. You are able to maintain your equilibrium and balance because of the: A. kinesthetic sense. B. vestibular sense. C. equilibrium sense. D. olfactory sense. Answer: B 199. Your exercise teacher instructs you to do five deep knee bends. Your ability to do knee bends without toppling over involves your _____ sense. A. kinesthetic B. auditory C. vestibular D. skin Answer: C 200. Your vestibular sense relies upon information from sense organs called: A. the proprioceptors. B. the semicircular canals and vestibular sacs. C. the eardrum. D. Pacinian corpuscles. Answer: B 201. The sensory receptors for the vestibular sense are the: A. hairlike receptor cells in the vestibular sacs and semicircular canals. B. hair cells embedded in the basilar membrane. C. fluid-filled areas of the cochlea. D. specialized proprioceptors located in the ear canal. Answer: A 202. Flying across the country, you encounter turbulent, rough air. The plane begins to bounce and sway. You begin to feel nauseated and airsick. Your motion sickness is caused by: A. disorientation due to a lack of feedback from your kinesthetic sense. B. drainage of the vestibular sacs and semicircular canals. C. damage to the eardrum. D. conflicting information from the eyes and the vestibular system. Answer: D 203. Maintaining equilibrium involves information from other senses besides the vestibular sense. Which other sense is particularly involved in maintaining equilibrium? A. vision B. audition C. olfaction D. gustation Answer: A 204. Hearing is to _____ as smell is to _____. A. sound waves; light waves B. sound waves; airborne molecules C. pressure; touch D. sound; pressure Answer: B 205. Vision is to _____ as audition is to _____. A. light; retina B. proprioceptors; vestibular sacs C. rods and cones; hair cells D. balance; substance P Answer: C 206. Vision is to _____ as audition is to _____. A. retina; cochlea B. ganglion cells; bipolar cells C. kinesthetic sense; olfactory sense D. semicircular canals; vestibular sacs Answer: A 207. The process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory information in a way that is meaningful is called: A. sensation. B. perception. C. kinesthesia. D. transduction. Answer: B 208. Detecting the colors of a painting on the wall involves the process of _____, whereas interpreting that stimuli as the representation of a vase of flowers involves the process of _____. A. perception; sensation B. sensation; transduction C. kinesthesia; perception D. sensation; perception Answer: D 209. Bottom-up processing is to top-down processing as _____ is to _____. A. kinesthetic processing; proprioceptive processing B. data-driven processing; conceptually driven processing C. figure-ground perception; depth perception D. vision; audition Answer: B 210. The flow of sensory data from the sensory receptors to the brain can be described as: A. conceptually driven processing. B. top-down processing. C. bottom-up processing. D. bottom-top processing. Answer: C 211. Imagine trying to assemble a jigsaw puzzle one piece at a time, without knowing what the final picture will be. To accomplish this task, you would work with the individual pieces to build the image using: A. bottom-top processing. B. top-down processing. C. conceptually data processing. D. bottom-up processing. Answer: D 212. When we draw on our knowledge, experiences, expectations, and other cognitive processes to arrive at meaningful perceptions, we are using: A. bottom-up processing. B. top-down processing. C. binocular cues. D. monocular cues. Answer: B 213. Jenny is looking at a picture in a newspaper and recognizes the person in the picture as her ex-boyfriend. What perceptual processing is she using? A. top-down processing B. bottom-down processing C. figure-ground D. perceptual grouping Answer: A 214. The scientific study of paranormal phenomena and ESP is called: A. parapsychology. B. extrasensory psychology. C. pseudopsychology. D. comparative psychology. Answer: A 215. Every weather forecaster, stockbroker, and gambler would probably MOST like to have which of the following ESP abilities? A. clairvoyance B. precognition C. psychokinesis D. telepathy Answer: B 216. It had been almost a month since Geraldine had heard from her sister, and she "sensed" that something was wrong. When she called her sister, Geraldine learned that her sister's husband had recently lost his job. Geraldine was convinced that this was an example of the ESP ability called: A. precognition. B. psychokinesis. C. clairvoyance. D. telepathy. Answer: C 217. Shena and Shana are twin girls who say that they can communicate with each other by using only their minds. As a psychology student, you are skeptical of their claim that they can communicate with _____. A. telepathy B. clairvoyance C. psychokinesis D. precognition Answer: A 218. Nina was trying to convince a skeptical friend that she has ESP. "So how can you explain what happened yesterday when I knew it was Sanford on the phone before I answered it?" she demanded. Nina's friend explained that we tend to remember coincidental events that seem to confirm our beliefs about unusual phenomena. This is called: A. the overestimation effect. B. precognition. C. the deductive fallacy. D. the fallacy of positive instances. Answer: D 219. You dream that you win twenty million dollars in the state lottery. The next day you find a twenty-dollar bill lying on the sidewalk. Although you want to think that your dream had been prophetic, it's more likely that finding the money the morning after your dream of winning twenty million dollars is a: A. replication. B. clairvoyant experience. C. precognitive experience. D. coincidence. Answer: D 220. You dream that you win twenty million dollars in the state lottery. The next morning, you find a twenty-dollar bill lying on the sidewalk. If you were to conclude that your dreams could predict the future, which logical fallacy would you have committed? A. the fallacy of replication B. the fallacy of positive instances C. the intuitive fallacy D. the precognitive fallacy Answer: B 221. What is the main reason many, if not most, psychologists doubt that extrasensory perception exists? A. The failure to replicate experiments that seem to demonstrate the existence of extrasensory perception. B. The fact that extrasensory perception is not taught in accredited graduate schools. C. The inability to scientifically test claims of extrasensory perception. D. The fact that the scientific method cannot be applied to the topic of extrasensory perception. Answer: A 222. As used in parapsychology, the German word "ganzfield" means: A. a unified whole or shape. B. a holistic approach to healing physical illnesses and relieving pain. C. total field. D. the essence of something. Answer: C 223. The ganzfield procedure is used to test: A. psychokinesis. B. clairvoyance. C. precognition. D. sensory adaptation. Answer: B 224. The group of Answer: B 225. The Gestalt psychologists: A. demonstrated that paranormal phenomena could be scientifically studied. B. believed that all psychological phenomena could be analyzed in terms of simple units of behavior. C. followed the structuralists in their emphasis on unconscious experience. D. emphasized that we perceive whole objects rather than isolated bits of information. Answer: D 226. Who was the founder of Gestalt psychology? A. Karl Duncker B. Max Wertheimer C. Marshall Segal D. J. MŸller-Lyer Answer: B 227. The term gestalt means: A. a unified whole, form, or shape. B. a perceptual illusion. C. a perceptual principle or law. D. an unexplainable paranormal experience or event. Answer: A 228. In the "dax" experiment, three-year-old children used which characteristic of an object to determine whether it was a "dax" or "not a dax"? A. the object's size B. the object's color C. the object's location D. the object's shape Answer: D 229. Professor Johann was fond of stating, "Remember, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts!" Professor Johann probably was a follower of which school of psychology? A. empiricist B. Gestalt C. functionalist D. structuralist Answer: B 230. Gestalt psychologists: A. focus on bottom-down processing for piecing together our perceptions. B. explain perception as a physiological process that integrates bits of sensory experiences. C. argue that we perceive the world as we do by piecing together pieces of sensory information. D. emphasize that we perceive whole objects rather than isolated pieces of sensory information. Answer: D 231. We consider several sources of information when we try to identify an object, but the most important source of information is the object's: A. size. B. color. C. shape. D. distance. Answer: C 232. Meta-analysis has been used to analyze the results of several studies that used the ganzfield procedure to test clairvoyance. What general results have been found? A. The results have been mixed. Some meta-analyses found evidence for the existence of an ESP effect, while other meta-analyses have reached the opposite conclusion. B. All of the meta-analyses conclusively showed that the ganzfield studies do NOT demonstrate evidence for the existence of an ESP effect. C. All of the meta-analyses conclusively showed that the ganzfield studies DO reliably demonstrate evidence for the existence of an ESP effect. D. Meta-analyses have shown that sensory adaptation can account for many so-called ESP demonstrations. Answer: A 233. According to one important perceptual principle, when we look at a scene we automatically tend to separate the elements of that scene into an object and its background. This is an example of: A. perceptual constancy. B. the law of closure. C. figure-ground relationship. D. the law of similarity. Answer: C 234. At the corner of Lisa's desk is one of her favorite seashells. If you looked at Lisa's desk, you would tend to perceive the seashell as _____, and her desk as _____. A. continuous; similar B. the figure; the ground C. larger; smaller D. the ground; the figure Answer: B 235. In the classic face/vase drawing, you can see both the face and the vase if you are able to reverse the _____ relationship. A. induced motion B. relative size C. figure-ground D. texture gradient Answer: C 236. Neuroscientists studying the brain's response to figure-ground relationships discovered that: A. regardless of whether a particular shape is presented as the figure or as the ground, the brain responds the way. B. brain neurons that activated to a specific shape when it was presented as a figure did not respond to the same shape when it was part of the background. C. figure-ground relationships are less important than the color of a stimulus in determining whether a shape will activate brain neurons. D. shapes presented as "figures" activate a different part of the brain than shapes presented as part of the background. Answer: B 237. When Arnie was sent to Afghanistan for military duty, he was issued a special camouflage uniform so that he would not be as readily visible against the rocky desert landscape. Camouflage is one application of the perceptual principle called: A. perceptual constancy. B. the law of proximity. C. the law of closure. D. figure-ground relationship. Answer: D 238. We tend to follow _____ in grouping elements together to arrive at the perception of figures, forms, and shapes. A. the Gestalt principles of organization B. place theory C. frequency theory D. perceptual set Answer: A 239. The tendency to group objects that are close to one another as a single unit is called the: A. law of closure. B. law of similarity. C. law of proximity. D. law of good continuation. Answer: C 240. Because of the law of _____, you perceive the following as three groups of dots: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . A. similarity B. closure C. good continuation D. proximity Answer: D 241. Because of the Law of _____, you perceive the following as two groups of Os that are separated by a group of dashes: OOOOOOOOOO----------OOOOOOOOOO A. similarity B. closure C. good continuation D. proximity Answer: A 242. Looking out the window, you perceive a tree in front of a car. Even though the tree interrupts your visual image of the car, you still perceive the car to be a solid shape, not split where the tree blocks your view of it. This is an example of the: A. law of proximity. B. law of closure. C. law of good continuation. D. law of proximity. Answer: B 243. The letters on the flashing neon sign actually read: CPEN FOR BUSINESS! But because of the law of _____, Joe never noticed that part of one neon light was burned out and perceived it as reading: OPEN FOR BUSINESS! A. proximity B. similarity C. good continuation D. closure Answer: D 244. From the third floor, you look down at the sidewalk crowded with students walking between buildings. Because of the law of _____, you perceive the students walking in each direction on the sidewalk as separate units. A. good continuation B. closure C. proximity D. similarity Answer: A 245. The law of PrŠgnanz refers to the fact that: A. our personality characteristics often determine how we interpret ambiguous figures. B. because many figures are ambiguous, we logically determine which perceptual principle we should follow in interpreting them. C. we tend to interpret ambiguous figures in the simplest and most efficient way. D. perceptual principles sometimes lead to incorrect interpretations of ambiguous figures. Answer: C 246. We tend to interpret visual stimuli in the way that produces the best, simplest, and most stable possible shape. This tendency is called the _____ and the Gestalt psychologists believed that this law encompassed all the other Gestalt principles. A. figure-ground law B. ganzfield axiom C. Wertheimer maxim D. law of PrŠgnanz Answer: B 247. The ability to perceive the three dimensions of an object, along with its distance from you, is called: A. texture gradient. B. linear parallax. C. depth perception. D. relative perception. Answer: C 248. The ability to accurately gauge the distance of the coffee cup on your desk as you reach for it is called: A. motion parallax. B. linear perception. C. accommodation. D. depth perception. Answer: D 249. Distance cues that require the use of only one eye are called _____ cues. A. one eye B. monocular C. binocular D. visual Answer: B 250. Two identical model cars are parked at the far end of the parking lot. You are able to determine that one of the cars is closer to you than the other because it appears to be slightly larger, even though you know it is the same size as the other. This is an example of which perceptual cue? A. linear parallax B. texture gradient C. relative size D. overlap Answer: C 251. You notice a red car and a white car parked next to each other in a parking lot. You perceive the red car as being closer to you because it blocks part of the image of the white car. This is an example of which perceptual cue? A. overlap B. motion parallax C. linear perspective D. aerial perspective Answer: A 252. Flying in an airplane, you look out your window and notice that everything on the ground far below looks hazy and blurred. This is an example of which depth perception cue? A. motion parallax B. relative size C. aerial perspective D. texture gradient Answer: C 253. As you walk on the beach, every detail of the rocks, shells, and sand beneath your feet seem crisp and distinct. As you look further down the beach, however, the details of the ground in the distance seem fuzzy and blurred. Because of the depth perception cue of _____, you perceive the ground beneath your feet to be much closer than the ground that extends into the distance. A. psychokinesis B. texture gradient C. aerial perspective D. linear perspective Answer: B 254. Standing on the commuter train platform, you glance down the tracks to see if the train is coming. As you do, you notice that the parallel rails of the train track appear to come together and meet in the distance. This is an example of which depth perception cue? A. linear perspective B. stroboscopic motion C. motion parallax D. aerial perspective Answer: A 255. As you drive down the highway, a child in the back seat asks why the tall buildings downtown are moving so slowly when the roadside is moving so quickly. Because you have read your psychology text, you are able to answer her question by responding that this is an example of: A. linear perspective. B. relative size. C. aerial perspective. D. motion parallax. Answer: D 256. Feedback from the muscles of the eye can help us judge the distance of an object, because the lens of the eye thickens when we change our focus from a distant object to a nearby object. This visual cue is called: A. relative size. B. accommodation. C. linear perspective. D. assimilation. Answer: B 257. Distance cues that involve both eyes are called _____ cues. A. binocular B. telescopic C. monocular D. microscopic Answer: A 258. If you look at a faraway street sign with first your left eye and then your right eye, the images look virtually identical. But if you look at your finger held just in front of your nose one eye at a time, the two images look very different. This phenomenon is an example of which distance cue? A. binocular distance B. monocular disparity C. linear parallax D. binocular disparity Answer: D 259. "The Magic Eye" is a best-selling book of stereograms. Each stereogram is a two-dimensional image that, when properly viewed, depicts a three-dimensional image, like the rabbits in the stereogram entitled "Rustling Hares" in Chapter 3. Now that you have read Chapter 3, you can explain to your friends that stereograms are based upon the perceptual principle of: A. stroboscopic motion. B. binocular disparity. C. accommodation. D. aerial perspective. Answer: B 260. When the image an object casts on our retina expands, we perceive the object as: A. shrinking. B. moving away from us. C. moving towards us. D. stationery. Answer: C 261. Our perception of the speed of an approaching object is primarily based on: A. texture gradient and aerial perspective. B. binocular disparity. C. the law of good continuation. D. the rate of expansion of the object's image on our retina. Answer: D 262. As you drive down a busy city street, you realize that the car behind is approaching you at a very high speed. How do you arrive at this perceptual conclusion? A. The car's image in the rearview mirror is maintaining a constant size. B. The car's image in the rearview mirror is shrinking rapidly. C. The car's image in the rearview mirror is expanding rapidly. D. The car's image in the rearview mirror slowly shrinks and then gradually disappears from view. Answer: C 263. Perceiving motion often involves the psychological assumption that the _____ is moving and the _____ is stationary. A. monocular cue; binocular cue B. larger object; smaller object C. ground; figure. D. figure; ground. Answer: D 264. The phenomenon of induced motion can be explained by our tendency to: A. assume that a background remains stationary while objects move. B. assume that a background moves while objects remain stationary. C. separate images into figure-ground relationships. D. underestimate the distance of faraway objects. Answer: A 265. While Andrea was sitting in her parked car, the van next to her started to slowly back up. Andrea quickly stepped on the brake because she perceived her own car to be moving forward, rather than the van moving backward. Andrea's faulty perception was due to a perceptual phenomenon called: A. stroboscopic motion. B. induced motion. C. binocular disparity. D. motion parallax. Answer: B 266. The phenomenon of induced motion was first studied by Gestalt psychologist: A. Max Wertheimer. B. William James. C. Karl Duncker. D. Johann MŸller-Lyer Answer: C 267. To perceive the motion of a kite zigzagging back and forth in the sky, your brain is combining all of the following information EXCEPT: A. eye-muscle activity. B. the changing retinal image. C. the contrast of the moving object with the stationary background. D. stroboscopic motion. Answer: D 268. When you watch a movie, it appears as if the images on the screen are moving smoothly. In fact, the movie is produced by a series of still photographs that are projected on the screen. You perceive the images as moving smoothly rather than as a jerky series of images because of: A. motion parallax. B. stroboscopic motion. C. induced motion. D. the dot-and-frame principle. Answer: B 269. If you were deaf in one ear, you might experience difficulty determining the: A. location of a sound. B. distance of a sound. C. amplitude of a sound. D. timbre of a sound. Answer: A 270. Objects produce different retinal images when they are seen from different angles, in different levels of light, and so forth. Despite these changes in sensory input, people have the tendency to perceive familiar objects as constant and unchanging. This tendency is called: A. depth perception. B. the law of good continuation. C. the law of similarity. D. perceptual constancy. Answer: D 271. An ambulance passes you on the highway and speeds into the distance. As the ambulance gets farther away, its retinal image shrinks. Nevertheless, you still perceive the ambulance as being the same size. How do you arrive at this conclusion? A. You use the Gestalt principle called the law of good continuation. B. The brain integrates information about the size of the retinal image and the relative distance of the ambulance. C. You rely on the cues of relative size and overlap to determine the size of the ambulance. D. The retinal image of the ambulance shrinks, but auditory cues from its siren help us determine its actual size and location. Answer: B 272. In the front of your geography classroom is a large globe of the world. No matter what angle you view the globe from, you still perceive it as a round globe. This is an example of: A. the law of similarity. B. aerial perspective. C. shape constancy. D. figure-ground relationship. Answer: C 273. The perception of brightness constancy occurs because: A. we rely on the cones in the retina when lighting is dim. B. objects always reflect the same proportion of available light. C. we rely on the rods in the retina when light is bright. D. of the Gestalt principle called the law of similarity. Answer: B 274. Psychologists study perceptual illusions and impossible figures to: A. better understand perceptual principles and the normal process of perception. B. debunk pseudosciences. C. better understand how people with psychological disorders see the world. D. aid in the treatment of perceptual disorders. Answer: A 275. In the famous MŸller-Lyer illusion, it appears as though: A. water is running uphill. B. one line is longer than the other even though the lines are actually identical in length. C. two parallel lines meet in the distance even though they actually remain perfectly parallel to one another. D. a dot is moving. Answer: B 276. How can the MŸller-Lyer illusion be explained? A. The visual cues of overlap and binocular disparity provide the illusion of a three-dimensional object. B. We correctly perceive the two lines as being identical in length, but because of motion parallax, the illusion that one line is longer is produced. C. We assume that the figure is moving and that the ground or frame is stationary. D. Visual depth cues create the perception that one line is farther away from us, which leads us to perceive that line as being longer. Answer: D 277. The moon illusion refers to the observation that: A. when a crescent-shaped object is viewed from one side, it casts a dramatically different image on the retina than when it is viewed from the opposite side. B. over a period of four weeks, the moon appears to dramatically change its shape and size. C. the full moon looks much larger on the horizon than it does when it is in the sky directly above you. D. craters on the moon create the appearance of a human face on the moon. Answer: C 278. Which perceptual principles are used to help explain the moon illusion? A. overlap and size constancy B. brightness constancy and shape constancy C. distance illusion and size illusion D. the MŸller-Lyer principle and the law of similarity Answer: A 279. According to your textbook, impossible figures, like perceptual illusions, underscore the fact that: A. the Gestalt psychologists were wrong: we do not use the Gestalt principles to organize our perception. B. although we rely on perceptual processes to detect environmental stimuli, we rely on sensation to interpret those stimuli. C. in contrast to sensation, perception is a psychological process that involves the active interpretation of sensory data. D. modern neuroscience research has shown that perceptual process vary from one person to another. Answer: C 280. The expectations and predispositions that tend to influence perceptual interpretations are referred to as: A. perceptual constancies. B. perceptual sets. C. nativism. D. perceptual illusions. Answer: B 281. On Halloween night, Jackie and some friends visited an abandoned house that was said to be haunted. Jackie heard a strange noise and was convinced that she had heard the footsteps of a ghost. But Beth, who also heard the sound, insisted that it was just a broken door rattling in the wind. Jackie's interpretation probably reflects: A. the law of PrŠgnanz. B. her clairvoyant ability to detect the presence of the ghost. C. her perceptual set that the house was haunted. D. an auditory perceptual illusion, called induced sensation. Answer: C 282. The "carpentered-world hypothesis" refers to the fact that: A. people in nonindustrialized, rural countries are more susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion because of their lack of experience with right angles. B. people in urban environments and developed countries are more susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion because of their experience with right angles. C. because perceptual principles are shared by people all over the world, all humans are equally susceptible to the same perceptual illusions. D. in some societies, perceptual illusions simply do not exist. Answer: B 283. The idea that perceptual processes are inborn and universal is referred to as the _____ position. A. nativist B. empiricist C. opponent-process D. linear perspective Answer: A 284. The idea that perceptual processes are strongly influenced by experience and can vary from culture to culture is referred to as the _____ position. A. nativist B. empiricist C. opponent-process D. linear perspective Answer: B 285. Based upon cross-cultural research on the MŸller-Lyer illusion, psychologists have concluded that: A. differences in eye pigmentation may explain some cultural differences in susceptibility to illusions. B. perceptual principles are universal rather than specific to any given culture. C. because the way the brain processes visual stimuli does not vary from one culture to another, learning plays no role in the susceptibility to perceptual illusions. D. perception is an active, constructive process that can be influenced by learning and experience. Answer: D 286. The Gestalt psychologists believed that perceptual processes are inborn, a viewpoint called: A. the nature perspective. B. Gestalt naturalism. C. the carpentered hypothesis. D. the nativist position. Answer: D 287. The empiricist position of perception states that A. perceptual rules are the same in every culture. B. perceptual processes must be researched empirically to understand the dynamics of perception. C. people in nonindustrialized countries are more susceptible to perceptual illusions because of their lack of exposure to empirical data. D. people actively construct their perceptions by drawing on their prior learning experiences. Answer: D 288. People in industrialized societies are far more susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion than are people in some nonindustrialized societies. How has this difference been explained? A. People in industrialized societies are more susceptible to perceptual illusions because of the fast pace of an industrialized society. B. Nonindustrialized societies are more practical in their perceptions of the world and do not succumb to illusions. C. People in industrialized environments have a great deal of perceptual experience judging lines, edges, and corners, and are thus more susceptible to an illusion that mimics a corner. D. People in industrialized environments have a great deal of experience with illusions such as those seen in magic shows and are thus more likely to "see" the illusion of the MŸller-Lyer. Answer: C 289. What has the research with children shown regarding the effects of race on the susceptibility of the MŸller-Lyer illusion? A. The race of the children was not a factor in whether children were susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion. B. Because eye pigmentation affects the visual detection of contours, children of different races responded differently to the MŸller-Lyer illusion. C. Children of different races in America are less susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion than are children from different races in Africa. D. Children of different races in Africa were more susceptible to the MŸller-Lyer illusion if they lived in rural areas of Africa. Answer: A 290. When Don took his daughter Laura to the doctor for a tetanus shot, he instructed her to look at his face and count backward from 10 as the nurse injected her arm. Which strategy of pain control was Don using with his daughter? A. imagery B. positive self-talk C. counterirritation D. distraction Answer: D 291. When Mena visited the Marine recruiter's office, he gave her a computer mouse pad with a Marine slogan on it, which read: "Pain is weakness leaving the body." If Mena used this slogan during the grueling work-outs in boot camp, what pain strategy would she be using? A. distraction. B. biofeedback. C. imagery. D. positive self-talk. Answer: D 292. Learning to exert conscious, voluntary control over automatic body functions such as respiration, heartbeat, and skin temperature is called: A. acupuncture. B. self-hypnosis. C. biofeedback. D. TENS. Answer: C 293. Even though the dentist had deadened the area around the tooth, Gail still felt moments of pain. To reduce her perception of pain, Gail began thinking about the flowers she wanted to plant in front of her house and visualizing in her mind how she wanted to arrange them. Gail was using the technique of _____ to help reduce her perception of pain. A. imagery B. self-hypnosis C. positive self-talk D. counterirritation Answer: A 294. Vigorously rubbing an injury to reduce the pain is one example of the technique of: A. imagery. B. self-hypnosis. C. counterirritation. D. positive self-talk. Answer: C