1. The branch of psychology that is focused on understanding the internal physical events and processes that correspond with our experiences and behavior is called: A. biological psychology. B. clinical psychology. C. cognitive physiology D. psychopharmacology Answer: 2. A biopsychologist is most likely to study: A. how conflict affects marital happiness. B. which psychological test would best predict job success. C. at which age children understand abstract concepts. D. brain development during adolescence. Answer: 3. A biopsychologist is most likely to study: A. how conflict affects marital happiness. B. which psychological test would best predict job success. C. at which age children understand abstract concepts. D. which hormones can initiate sexual behavior in hamsters. Answer: 4. Neurons are: A. found in primates and humans, but not in other animals. B. highly specialized cells that receive and transmit information from one area of the body to another. C. found only in the spinal cord and bone marrow. D. highly specialized cells located exclusively in the brain. Answer: 5. There are roughly _____ neurons in the human brain. A. 500,000 B. 500 million C. 1 billion D. 100 billion Answer: 6. According to your text, which of the following methods is used to investigate the functions of individual neurons? A. studying each neuron with special PET scans that isolate their activity B. studying large neurons with MRI scans and small neurons with PET scans C. studying very simple animals, such as sea snails and squids, that have a limited number of neurons D. injecting slightly radioactive dyes into the spinal cord, then tracking the activity with an EEG Answer: 7. Glial cells are cells that: A. send and receive information. B. provide nutrition and structural support for neurons. C. act as a bridge between the brain and the spinal cord. D. communicate information to the muscles and glands. Answer: 8. Which of the following statements about glial cells is FALSE? A. In the most sophisticated areas of the brain, glial cells send and receive information in almost exactly the same way that neurons do. B. Glial cells are smaller than neurons. C. Glial cells outnumber neurons by about 10 to 1. D. One type of glial cell produces the myelin sheath that surrounds the axons of some neurons. Answer: 9. Which of the following is TRUE of glial cells? A. They help enhance the speed of communication between neurons. B. They manufacture endorphins. C. They are usually larger than neurons. D. They are located in the cell body of every neuron. Answer: 10. The three basic types of neurons are: A. glial cells, nodes of Ranvier, and myelin. B. dendritic neurons, axonal neurons, and body neurons. C. excitatory neurons, inhibitory neurons, and interleaved neurons. D. sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons. Answer: 11. _____ neurons convey information about the environment from the sense organs to the brain, and _____ neurons communicate information to the muscles and glands. A. Dendritic; axonal B. Excitatory; inhibitory C. Sensory; motor D. Motor; sensory Answer: 12. The type of specialized cell whose main function is to communicate between neurons is a(n): A. interneuron. B. glial cell. C. node. D. sodium ion. Answer: 13. Most of the neurons in the human nervous system are: A. interneurons. B. motor neurons. C. sensory neurons. D. replaced over the course of the lifespan by new neurons that are generated by glial cells. Answer: 14. As you write the answers to these test questions, millions of _____ are activated to help your hand muscles move. A. interneurons B. motor neurons C. sensory neurons D. glial cells Answer: 15. The amount of information that a neuron can receive increases with the number of _____ that the neuron has. A. axons B. cell bodies C. glial cells D. dendrites Answer: 16. The cell body of a neuron: A. contains the nucleus. B. maintains separations between the nodes of Ranvier. C. increases the transmission speed of electrical impulses. D. directs the creation of new neurons in response to new learning experiences. Answer: 17. The _____ is contained in the cell body and provides energy for the neuron to carry out its functions. A. dendrite B. sodium ion C. potassium pump D. nucleus Answer: 18. Which of the following statements about the properties of neurons is TRUE? A. All neurons are the same size and shape. B. The size and shape of neurons vary a great deal, reflecting their specialized function. C. Sensory and motor neurons are the same size and shape, and interneurons are long and thin. D. Motor neurons outnumber interneurons by almost 10 to 1. Answer: 19. Most neurons have all of the following parts EXCEPT: A. association areas. B. cell body and nucleus. C. dendrites. D. axons. Answer: 20. The word dendrite comes from a Greek word meaning "_____." A. body B. hollow C. space D. tree Answer: 21. The part of the neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called the: A. axon. B. nucleus. C. dendrite. D. sodium ion membrane. Answer: 22. A neuron may have thousands of _____, but can have only one _____. A. dendrites; axon B. cell bodies; dendrite C. axons; dendrite D. nodes of Ranvier; association area Answer: 23. Which of the following is TRUE about axons? A. Neurons that have a myelin sheath do not have an axon. B. Axons often have branches near their tips for communicating with more than one target. C. Axons contain genetic material and other structures found in virtually all cells of the body. D. Much like an electric wire, the axon is an excellent conductor of electricity. Answer: 24. The length of an axon: A. is typically several feet long. B. is a function of the length of the neuron's dendrites. C. varies considerably depending on the part of the body that it serves. D. changes depending on the activities of the muscle that it serves. Answer: 25. The part of the neuron that carries messages to other cells in the body is the: A. dendrite. B. axon. C. nucleus. D. reticular formation. Answer: 26. Which of the following statements about the axon is FALSE? A. Some axons in the human body extend twelve inches or more. B. The axons of many, but not all, neurons have a white, fatty covering called the myelin sheath. C. A given neuron usually has many more axons than dendrites. D. Gaps in the myelin sheath surrounding an axon are called the nodes of Ranvier. Answer: 27. The primary function of the myelin sheath is to: A. reduce the speed of neurotransmitters crossing the synaptic gap. B. insulate the axon and increase the speed at which neurons convey their message. C. provide support and nutrition to the dendrites. D. bundle the axons of neurons that produce the same neurotransmitters. Answer: 28. Compared to neurons that do not have myelin, neurons with myelin: A. are unable to communicate with other neurons. B. can communicate up to 20 times faster. C. use much more energy. D. do not have an axon. Answer: 29. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that is caused by: A. degeneration of the myelin sheath, slowing or interrupting the transmission of neural messages. B. an abnormal increase in the thickness of the myelin sheath, blocking the release of neurotransmitters. C. multiple fractures in the sclerotic membrane, which causes the neuron's cell body to collapse and die. D. dendrites becoming brittle and breaking. Answer: 30. As a general rule, communication within a neuron progresses from: A. the axon to the dendrites to the cell body. B. the dendrites to the cell body to the axon. C. the myelin to the nucleus to the nodes of Ranvier. D. somatic to autonomic. Answer: 31. Information is transmitted along the axon: A. by glial cells. B. at the speed of light or 186,000 miles per second. C. in the form of a brief electrical impulse. D. by hairlike projections. Answer: 32. The action potential is best defined as: A. the amount of serotonin that can cross the axon's membrane. B. the +3 to +7 volt capacity of a typical motor neuron. C. the ability of a motor neuron to either contract or relax a muscle group. D. a brief electrical impulse that transmits information along the axon of a neuron. Answer: 33. The analogy used in the book referred to the axon membrane as a "gatekeeper." This means that the membrane: A. determines whether an action potential will "pass" through the axon. B. controls the balance of positive and negative ions in the interior and the exterior of the axon. C. operates in an "all-or-none" fashion, either opening to allow neurotransmitters to pass or not. D. uses the nodes of Ranvier to allow some ions to move out of the axon and neurotransmitters to move into the axon. Answer: 34. The stimulus threshold of the neuron refers to the: A. minimum level of stimulation required to activate a particular neuron. B. 3-to-1 ratio of positive-to-negative ions required for the neuron to transmit information to the next neuron. C. positive electrical charge on the neuron's interior just prior to neuron activation. D. minimum level of stimulation required to prevent degeneration of the neuron. Answer: 35. When a neuron is polarized: A. the exterior fluid surrounding the neuron is more negatively charged than the interior of the neuron. B. an action potential will travel down the dendrites causing the release of neurotransmitters. C. the electrical charge across the neuron's membrane is balanced with the same charge outside as inside. D. the interior of the neuron is more negatively charged than the exterior fluid surrounding the neuron. Answer: 36. A neuron's resting potential is due to the greater concentration of: A. potassium and sodium ions outside of the neuron. B. potassium and sodium ions inside of the neuron. C. potassium ions inside the neuron and the greater concentration of sodium ions outside the neuron. D. sodium ions inside the neuron and the greater concentration of potassium ions outside the neuron. Answer: 37. When a neuron is in the resting potential state: A. it is unable to activate. B. it has an negative electrical charge of about 7 volts. C. the fluid within the axon has a larger concentration of potassium ions than the fluid surrounding the axon. D. the ion channels are open. Answer: 38. The electrical charge of a neuron when it is in the resting potential state is about: A. +30 millivolts. B. -70 millivolts. C. +2 volts. D. -10 volts. Answer: 39. An action potential occurs when: A. sodium ions enter the axon's interior and potassium ions enter the axon's exterior, causing a brief positive electrical impulse. B. potassium ions are electrically transformed into sodium ions. C. polarized dendrites stimulate adjoining nodes of Ranvier. D. potassium ions enter the dendrites and sodium ions exit the axon, causing depolarization and a brief negative electrical charge. Answer: 40. The action potential is produced by the: A. movement of ions across the membrane of the axon. B. movement of neurotransmitters across the ion channels. C. opening and closing of the nodes in the myelin sheath. D. reuptake of the neurotransmitters into the vesicles. Answer: 41. Which of the following represents the sequence of ion movements that causes an action potential? A. Sodium ions move into the axon and then potassium ions move out of the axon. B. Sodium ions move out of the axon and then potassium ions move into the dendrite. C. Potassium ions move out of the dendrite and then sodium ions move into the axon. D. Sodium ions move out of the axon and then potassium ions move into the axon. Answer: 42. What is the result of sodium ions moving across the axon's membrane during an action potential? A. The inside of the axon changes to a negative electrical charge. B. The outside of the axon changes to a positive electrical charge. C. The inside of the axon changes to a positive electrical charge. D. The nodes of Ranvier close. Answer: 43. What keeps an action potential continuing down an axon? A. At each successive segment of the axon, the action potential is regenerated by depolarization and the movement of ions across the axon's membrane. B. Neurotransmitters are constantly being released to generate the action potential at each successive segment of the axon. C. Action potentials are conducted down the axon just as electricity is conducted through a wire. D. Ion channels open and close at the nodes of Ranvier, allowing neurotransmitters to enter into the axon and regenerate an action potential at each node. Answer: 44. Which of the following is TRUE regarding action potentials? A. Partial action potentials result in fewer neurotransmitter molecules being released than whole action potentials. B. Action potentials operate under the "all-or-none law," which means that action potentials either move all sodium ions across the membrane or none of the sodium ions across the membrane. C. Once an action potential is started, it is self-sustaining and continues to the end of the axon. D. Action potentials regenerate themselves during their refractory periods when the axon membrane is depolarized. Answer: 45. What occurs during a refractory period? A. The neuron depolarizes. B. Neurotransmitters are released by the dendrites. C. The charge of the neuron's interior increases to about +60 millivolts. D. The neuron reestablishes the negative-inside/positive-outside condition. Answer: 46. The all-or-none law refers to the fact that: A. the myelin sheath either completely covers an axon or it does not. B. the resting potential occurs only when the neuron is completely depolarized. C. either the neuron is sufficiently stimulated and an action potential occurs or it is not sufficiently stimulated and the action potential does not occur. D. a neurotransmitter is completely reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron or it is dissolved in the synaptic gap. Answer: 47. Which two factors affect the speed at which the action potential is conducted along a neuron's axon? A. the diameter of the axon and whether the axon is wrapped with a myelin sheath B. the number of dendrites and the size of the cell body C. the type and number of axons projecting from the neuron D. the size of the positive electrical charge just before an action potential occurs and the number of adjacent neurons Answer: 48. The fastest neurons in the human body communicate their messages at: A. the speed of light, or 186,000 miles per second. B. speeds up to 270 miles per hour. C. the speed of sound, or about 770 miles per hour. D. only about 10 miles per hour. Answer: 49. In myelinated axons, where are the sodium ion channels concentrated? A. at each of the nodes of Ranvier B. near the site of neurotransmitter release C. along the dendrites D. wherever myelin is covering the axon Answer: 50. How are action potentials different in a myelinated axon and an unmyelinated axon? A. Action potentials are slower in myelinated axons because the myelin sheath interferes with the transfer of ions across the membrane. B. Action potentials "jump" from node to node in myelinated axons rather than progressing down the entire length of the axon. C. Action potentials have greater electrical charges in myelinated axons. D. Action potentials in myelinated axons operate according to the "all-or-none law" but action potentials in unmyelinated axons do not. Answer: 51. The point of communication between two neurons is called the: A. refractory. B. conjunction. C. glial cell. D. synapse. Answer: 52. Presynaptic neuron is to postsynaptic neuron as: A. synapse is to neurotransmitters. B. receptors are to neurotransmitters. C. electrical communication is to chemical communication. D. message-sending neuron is to message-receiving neuron. Answer: 53. The most common form of communication between neurons is: A. chemical. B. electrical. C. magnetic. D. hormonal. Answer: 54. Which of the following best defines a neurotransmitter? A. a chemical messenger that crosses the synaptic gap between neurons B. magnetic waves that create detailed images of individual neurons C. a chemical communicator manufactured by glial cells D. a microscopic channel through which sodium and potassium ions pass Answer: 55. What are contained in synaptic vesicles? A. hormones B. ions C. neurotransmitters D. receptors Answer: 56. In synaptic transmission, the action potential stimulates the release of: A. potassium ions by the glial cells. B. neurotransmitters by the synaptic vesicles. C. myelin by the glial cells. D. sodium ions by the dendrites. Answer: 57. What happens to the neurotransmitters that fail to attach to a receptor site? A. In a process called reuptake, they are reabsorbed by the sending neuron and recycled. B. They bind with potassium ions. C. They are destroyed by glial cells. D. They are neutralized by negative ions. Answer: 58. Like a key in a lock, the shape of the _____ must fit the _____ to affect the postsynaptic neuron. A. dendrite; axon terminal B. cell body; axon terminal C. neurotransmitter; receptor site D. synaptic vesicle; receptor site Answer: 59. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. A given neuron can have thousands of synapses with other neurons. B. A given neuron can manufacture three or more different types of neurotransmitters. C. Synaptic vesicles are released into the synaptic gap, then "dock" with the adjoining neurons. D. It only takes a few millionths of a second for neurotransmitters to cross the synaptic gap. Answer: 60. When neurotransmitters communicate an excitatory message to the postsynaptic neuron: A. the postsynaptic neuron is more likely to activate. B. the presynaptic neuron is more likely to activate. C. the action potential is canceled out. D. reuptake is inhibited. Answer: 61. When a neurotransmitter communicates an inhibitory message to a postsynaptic neuron, the: A. postsynaptic neuron is more likely to have an action potential. B. postsynaptic neuron is less likely to have an action potential. C. presynaptic neuron is more likely to have an action potential. D. presynaptic neuron is less likely to have an action potential. Answer: 62. If a postsynaptic neuron receives an excitatory and an inhibitory message at the same time, what happens? A. An action potential will occur in the postsynaptic neuron because of the excitatory message. B. The postsynaptic neuron makes a "decision" about which message to use and which to ignore. C. The excitatory and the inhibitory messages cancel each other out. D. Reuptake is less likely to occur because the excitatory and inhibitory messages cancel the reuptake mechanism. Answer: 63. Any given neurotransmitter: A. always communicates either an excitatory or inhibitory effect. B. can have different effects, depending upon the receptor site to which it attaches. C. can be located in the central nervous system or the peripheral nervous system but not both. D. can attach to any available receptor site on adjacent neurons. Answer: 64. Neurotransmitters: A. have been much easier to detect and identify because of PET scans. B. are present in extremely small quantities in the brain. C. are constantly changing their basic molecular shape as the human brain adapts to new experiences. D. compete with sodium and potassium ions for the receptor sites on the surrounding neurons. Answer: 65. The neurotransmitter called acetylcholine: A. is found in all sensory neurons. B. was the first neurotransmitter to be discovered. C. is increased by antidepressant drugs, like Prozac. D. is chemically identical to heroin. Answer: 66. All motor neurons manufacture: A. acetylcholine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. L-dopa. Answer: 67. Which of the following neurotransmitters is implicated in Alzheimer's disease? A. serotonin B. dopamine C. acetylcholine D. GABA Answer: 68. During the Persian Gulf War, many U.S. troops carried atropine injection kits as an antidote to nerve gas. How does the drug atropine counteract nerve gas? A. Atropine blocks acetylcholine receptor sites. B. Atropine blocks the reuptake of acetylcholine. C. Atropine causes serotonin to be continuously released. D. Atropine dissolves serotonin. Answer: 69. Despite international efforts to eliminate it, nerve gas is still used by the military in some countries to attack others. How does nerve gas kill? A. It causes a rapid and severe depletion of the neurotransmitter called serotonin. B. It blocks the production of substance P in the spinal cord. C. It causes acetylcholine to be continuously released by motor neurons. D. It blocks the release of GABA, causing coma and rapid death. Answer: 70. Too little dopamine in the brain is associated with symptoms of: A. schizophrenia. B. Parkinson's disease. C. anxiety. D. Alzheimer's disease. Answer: 71. Evidence suggests that the addictiveness of some drugs, including cocaine and nicotine, is related to increases in the neurotransmitter _____. A. dopamine B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. GABA Answer: 72. Parkinson's disease is caused by the degeneration of neurons that produce: A. GABA. B. norepinephrine. C. dopamine. D. acetylcholine. Answer: 73. Antipsychotic drugs used to help reduce the hallucinations that often accompany schizophrenia work by: A. decreasing dopamine activity in the brain. B. stimulating the production of dopamine in the brain. C. blocking the reuptake of dopamine, making more dopamine available. D. selectively reducing serotonin levels in the substantia nigra. Answer: 74. Like other people afflicted with _____, actor Michael J. Fox takes a medication containing _____ to help control symptoms of the disease. A. Alzheimer's disease; GABA B. depression; serotonin C. obsessive-compulsive disorder; GABA D. Parkinson's disease; L-dopa Answer: 75. Lamar suffers from schizophrenia. If you were his psychiatrist, you would probably recommend that Lamar take a medication that _____ to help reduce his psychotic symptoms. A. blocks dopamine receptors B. increases serotonin activity C. decreases GABA activity D. blocks norepinephrine receptors Answer: 76. Former heavyweight boxer Muhammad Ali suffers from symptoms that are very similar to Parkinson's disease. He sometimes experiences muscle tremors and has difficulty initiating movements or speech. To help reduce these symptoms, Ali takes a drug called: A. naloxone. B. atropine. C. L-dopa. D. morphine. Answer: 77. The drug called L-dopa: A. is used to treat people suffering from schizophrenia. B. blocks pain signals. C. is found in all sensory neurons. D. converts to dopamine in the brain. Answer: 78. _____ is to Alzheimer's disease as _____ is to Parkinson's disease. A. Dopamine; serotonin B. Acetylcholine; dopamine C. Serotonin; norepinephrine D. Norepinephrine; serotonin Answer: 79. Over the course of several months and for no apparent reason, Jennifer became progressively more despondent, withdrawn, and listless. Her doctor accurately diagnosed the problem as major depression and started Jennifer on an antidepressant drug called Prozac. Three weeks later, Jennifer was much improved. Antidepressant drugs work by _____ the availability of _____ in the brain. A. increasing; serotonin B. decreasing; dopamine C. increasing; endorphins D. decreasing; acetylcholine Answer: 80. Antianxiety medications, such as Valium and Xanax, work by _____ in the brain. A. increasing dopamine activity B. increasing GABA activity C. decreasing norepinephrine activity D. decreasing endorphin activity Answer: 81. Which neurotransmitter plays a dual role in the brain area that regulates daily sleep/wake cycles by communicating excitatory messages during the day and inhibitory messages at night? A. serotonin B. dopamine C. acetylcholine D. GABA Answer: 82. Which of the following drugs is chemically similar to the endorphins? A. curare B. morphine C. L-dopa D. atropine Answer: 83. The term "endorphin" is actually a combination of the words _____ and _____. A. endogenous; morphine B. endoneurium; pheromone C. endoderm; atropine D. endocrine; peripheral Answer: 84. Miguel jogs about five miles a day. At roughly the three-mile point, Miguel usually experiences a rush of positive feelings due to _____ levels of _____. A. decreased; norepinephrine B. increased; serotonin C. increased; endorphins D. decreased; GABA Answer: 85. Which of the following is one of the phenomena mentioned in the text that is associated with increased endorphin levels? A. addiction to nicotine B. muscle spasms during aerobic exercise C. the pain-relieving effects of acupuncture D. the positive mood produced by eating chocolate Answer: 86. After surgery, physicians may prescribe a medication to relieve pain. Such a medication would most likely mimic the effects of _____. A. dopamine B. endorphins C. serotonin D. GABA Answer: 87. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways discussed in the text that drugs can interfere with synaptic transmission? A. by blocking a receptor site and preventing the neurotransmitter from having an effect B. by mimicking a particular neurotransmitter and producing the same effect C. by increasing the length of time a neurotransmitter remains in the synaptic gap, increasing its effects D. by bonding with the neurotransmitter and changing its molecular weight and shape Answer: 88. The venom of a black widow spider is so dangerous because it _____, which, in turn, leads to severe muscle spasms. A. causes acetylcholine to be released continuously B. blocks dopamine receptors C. stimulates the production of L-dopa D. inhibits the reuptake of serotonin Answer: 89. During a resting stop while hiking, Phil was bitten by a black widow spider. Shortly after being bitten, he started having breathing difficulties, then experienced muscle spasms. The symptoms he experienced occurred because the black widow spider's venom: A. blocked acetylcholine receptor sites on motor neurons. B. blocked the release of serotonin from sending neurons. C. shut down the functioning of the substantia nigra in Phil's brain. D. caused acetylcholine to be continuously released by the motor neurons. Answer: 90. Which of the following drugs mimics the neurotransmitter acetylcholine? A. Prozac B. L-dopa C. nicotine D. morphine Answer: 91. Some native peoples of South America use the drug curare to poison the tips of their hunting arrows. When an animal is struck by the arrow, it goes limp and quickly suffocates. Why? A. Serotonin floods into the synaptic gap. B. Dopamine reuptake is blocked. C. Acetylcholine receptor sites are blocked. D. Endorphin receptor sites are destroyed. Answer: 92. The two main divisions of the nervous system are the _____ and the _____. A. peripheral nervous system; central nervous system B. central nervous system; autonomic nervous system C. brain; spinal cord D. autonomic nervous system; somatic nervous system Answer: 93. Nerves are composed of _____, which are held together by connective tissue. A. bundles of neuron axons B. dendritic fibers C. pons D. glial cells Answer: 94. In the _____, information is communicated along nerves. A. central nervous system B. peripheral nervous system C. brain and the spinal cord D. spinal cord Answer: 95. _____ are to the central nervous system as _____ are to the peripheral nervous system. A. Axons; dendrites B. Neurons; nerves C. Myelin sheaths; neurotransmitters D. Neurotransmitters; hormones Answer: 96. In combination, the brain and spinal cord make up the: A. peripheral nervous system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. central nervous system. D. somatic nervous system. Answer: 97. What is a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A. It protects the central nervous system from being jarred. B. It promotes the release of hormones in the brain. C. It can function as a neurotransmitter in times of severe stress. D. It is the communication link between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. Answer: 98. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Nature has encased the brain and the spinal cord in bone to help protect these structures. B. The brain is suspended in cerebrospinal fluid to help protect it. C. All behavior is controlled by the brain. D. The spinal cord handles both incoming and outgoing messages. Answer: 99. Professor Romero discovered that the overhead projector in her classroom had a short in the wiring system. When she touched the metal edge of the projector, she got an electric shock and instantly jerked her hand back. This instantaneous reaction is an example of: A. aphasia. B. hemispheric specialization. C. the brain's structural plasticity. D. a spinal reflex. Answer: 100. Thomas was distracted as he was cooking, and he inadvertently touched a very hot dish. Instantaneously, he jerked his hand back, a reflexive action that was processed: A. in his spinal cord. B. simultaneously in his spinal cord and brain. C. first in his brain, then a moment later in his spinal cord. D. with no involvement of the central nervous system. Answer: 101. The peripheral nervous system is comprised of: A. the brain. B. the brain and the spinal cord. C. all the nerves lying outside the central nervous system. D. motor neurons. Answer: 102. The two main subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ nervous system and the _____ nervous system. A. sympathetic; parasympathetic B. somatic; autonomic C. autonomic; spinal D. reticular; adrenal Answer: 103. As you are taking a test, you inadvertently drop your pencil, reach down, pick it up, and put it back on the desk. This voluntary action involved motor signals that were communicated out to your muscles via the _____ nervous system. A. autonomic B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. somatic Answer: 104. As you are walking on a beach, you pick up an odd-looking seashell that has a very rough texture. As you rub your fingers over the shell, the sensory messages are communicated via the _____ nervous system to the central nervous system. A. somatic B. autonomic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic Answer: 105. While taking this test, you have probably paid little attention to ongoing body functions, such as breathing, heartbeat, and digestion. Such involuntary bodily functions are governed by the: A. somatic nervous system. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. spinal reflexes. D. autonomic nervous system. Answer: 106. The autonomic nervous system is composed of two different branches called the _____ and _____ nervous systems. A. somatic; endocrine B. sympathetic; parasympathetic C. endocrine; sympathetic D. involuntary; voluntary Answer: 107. Maria heard a strange thumping noise just outside her bedroom window in the middle of the night. She froze in fear, and her heart began to pound. Maria's heightened physical arousal involved the activation of which subdivision of the nervous system? A. endocrine B. parasympathetic C. sympathetic D. reticular Answer: 108. Paul was awakened by a thumping noise in the middle of the night and jumped out of bed to investigate. Hearing a muffled meow, Paul realized that his cat was locked in the closet and was pushing against the door. Breathing a sigh of relief, Paul let the cat out of the closet and went back to bed. Which subdivision of the nervous system helped calm down and restore Paul's body functioning back to normal? A. parasympathetic B. endocrine C. sympathetic D. somatic Answer: 109. Martin complained that he was unable to pass his midterm because he "choked" during the exam: he was so anxious about taking the exam that his palms were sweaty, his heart was pounding, and he felt as if he couldn't catch his breath. "Choking" during an exam involves the activation of the _____ nervous system. A. parasympathetic B. somatic C. parietal D. sympathetic Answer: 110. The heightened physical arousal that characterizes the fight-or-flight response involves the _____ branch of the nervous system. A. spinal B. somatic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic Answer: 111. In general terms, the sympathetic nervous system could be described as your body's _____ system, whereas the parasympathetic nervous system could be described as your body's _____ system. A. sensory; motor B. emergency; maintenance C. motor; sensory D. maintenance; emergency Answer: 112. The endocrine system involves communication by chemical messengers called _____, which circulate through the _____. A. hormones; bloodstream B. neurotransmitters; spinal cord C. hormones; cerebrospinal fluid D. endorphins; nervous system Answer: 113. The main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is the: A. adrenal cortex. B. hypothalamus. C. pineal gland. D. pancreas. Answer: 114. Which gland directly regulates the production of hormones in other endocrine glands? A. hippocampus B. oxytocin C. pituitary D. pancreas Answer: 115. Whereas the _____ gland is involved in regulating sleep/wake cycles, the _____ gland is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and hunger. A. thyroid; pituitary B. pineal; pancreas C. adrenal; pineal D. pancreas; thyroid Answer: 116. Another word for "epinephrine" is: A. adrenaline B. progesterone C. glutamate D. soma Answer: 117. The physical arousal that accompanies the fight-or-flight response involves the activation of which of the following endocrine glands? A. the testes in males and the ovaries in females B. the pineal gland C. the thyroid gland D. the adrenal medulla Answer: 118. Which gland produces melatonin, a hormone that helps to regulate our sleep-wake cycle? A. the pineal gland B. the adrenal glands C. the pancreas D. the thyroid gland Answer: 119. As you're eating lunch with a friend, you reach for your glass of water with your right hand, lift it to your lips, take a sip, then set it down. This simple task involved: A. only the primary motor cortex in the brain. B. PET scanning. C. multiple brain structures and regions communicating via neural pathways. D. just the right hemisphere of the brain. Answer: 120. Many brain functions involve the activation of _____ that link different brain structures. A. hormones B. reflexes C. neural pathways D. nerves Answer: 121. Although your text talks about brain centers and structures that are involved in different aspects of behavior, the best way to think of the brain is as a(n) _____. A. integrated system B. neural network C. computer memory device D. neural pathway Answer: 122. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. One limitation of using the case study method with a person who has sustained a brain injury is that brain injuries are rarely confined to a specific brain area. B. Electrically stimulating a specific area of the brain usually produces the opposite effect of a lesion in the same brain area. C. Lesion techniques are only used with animals to study brain functions. D. A limitation of the case study method is that damage to one area of the brain may affect functioning in another brain area. Answer: 123. A limitation to the case study method is that: A. generalizing results from a case study must be done very cautiously. B. it involves elaborate and expensive equipment if it is to be done correctly. C. it focuses too much on ordinary problems and thus provides little information about unusual situations. D. results from such a study are viewed as meaningful only if they can be scientifically replicated. Answer: 124. An early study of Einstein's brain tissue in 1985 by Marian Diamond and her colleagues claimed that Einstein's brain: A. had three times as many neurons as a normal brain. B. had larger frontal lobes, but a smaller limbic system than a normal brain. C. had a higher ratio of glial cells to neurons than the brains used as a comparison group. D. had a higher ratio of neurons to glial cells than the brains used as a comparison group. Answer: 125. As discussed in the Focus on Neuroscience feature on Einstein's brain, neuroscientist Marian Diamond and her colleagues studied tissue from Albert Einstein's brain in 1985. Which of the following was noted as one of the problems with Diamond study? A. There were no control or comparison brains used in the study. B. Diamond and her co-researchers mistook glial cells for dendrites. C. The tissue had been poorly preserved, and was in such a decayed state that accurate measurements could not be done. D. The comparison brains came from people who had unknown health problems and were younger and of a lower socioeconomic group than Einstein. Answer: 126. In 1999, Sandra Witelson and her colleagues studied the structure of one portion of Einstein's brain. What did they find? A. There were no differences between Einstein's brain and normal brains. B. Einstein's brain was about ten percent larger than the average size of the brains used for comparison. C. Einstein's brain had an unusual pattern of grooves and fissures on the parietal lobe. D. Confirming Gall's theories, Einstein had an exceptionally large organ of number and calculation. Answer: 127. The Focus on Neuroscience feature identified some problems with the finding by Sandra Witelson and her colleagues regarding the structure of Einstein's brain. What was one of the problems that was identified? A. The patterns of grooves and fissures on the brain's surface are slightly different in everyone, so it's hard to interpret the meaning of the pattern on an individual brain. B. There were not enough normal brains used for comparison purposes. C. One of Gall's research assistants noticed that Witelson had misidentified the organ of benevolence as the organ of calculation. D. The chemicals used to preserve Einstein's brain had shrunk the tissue, and Einstein's brain was actually thirty percent larger than average brains and not the ten percent that Witelson had claimed. Answer: 128. On a general level, the Focus on Neuroscience section about studies of Einstein's brain illustrates: A. That geniuses are born, not made. B. That phrenology, when combined with modern neuroscience techniques, can help us understand the source of personality characteristics and abilities. C. That it's difficult to draw conclusions from case studies of single individuals, however exceptional. D. That conclusions based on functional MRI imaging techniques are more accurate, overall, than those based on PET scans. Answer: 129. Lesions of the brain result in _____, whereas electrical stimulation of the brain results in _____. A. activation of neurons; inhibition of neurons B. destruction of brain tissue; activation of neurons C. uncontrollable seizures; a reduction of seizure activity D. disruption of behavioral function; restoration of behavioral function Answer: 130. Producing lesions to study the brain involves: A. using electrified wires or discs to stimulate specific brain areas. B. surgically altering or destroying a specific portion of the brain. C. tracking the brain's use of glucose. D. measuring the precise location of bulges and bumps on the skull. Answer: 131. To investigate why Bonnie had unexpectedly experienced a seizure, her doctors placed electrodes on Bonnie's scalp to monitor the electrical activity of her brain. Which of the following techniques were being used? A. lesions B. an MRI scan C. the electroencephalograph D. the CAT scan Answer: 132. The electrical activity of the brain is recorded and measured using which of the following techniques or instruments? A. positron emission tomography B. computerized axial tomography C. the electroencephalograph D. magnetic resonance imaging Answer: 133. Phrenology refers to: A. the study of brain/endocrine system interactions. B. a pseudoscience that related personality characteristics to bumps on the skull. C. the historical method of drilling holes in the skull as a treatment for brain disease and mental illness. D. a medical specialty that focuses on the treatment of endocrine disorders. Answer: 134. Phrenology was founded by: A. Pierre Paul Broca. B. Roger Sperry. C. Karl Wernicke. D. Franz Gall. Answer: 135. The popularity of phrenology triggered scientific interest in which of the following? A. the idea that the brain's left hemisphere might be specialized for language functions B. the development of medications to treat severe mental disorders C. using injections of insulin to induce convulsions D. the idea that specific psychological and mental functions are located in specific brain areas Answer: 136. What is a psychograph? A. a device worn on the head that measures the bumps on a person's skull B. an instrument that is used to ensure the precise placement of electrodes in the brain C. a surgical procedure that involves grafting two sections of brain tissue D. a device that measures the intensity of the magnetic fields being emitted by different areas of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex Answer: 137. Although disproved, phrenology proved valuable in: A. generating interest in the idea of cortical localization. B. stressing the role of nutrition in endocrine and brain disorders. C. emphasizing the importance of hormones in human behavior. D. inspiring modern methods of treating brain disease and mental disorders. Answer: 138. Images of the brain's structure are produced by which of the following instruments or techniques? A. the electroencephalograph B. an MRI scan C. a PET scan D. lesions Answer: 139. Six-year-old Gary couldn't stop throwing up after hitting his head. To help detect possible damage or brain swelling, doctors took a detailed image of the boy's brain using _____, which uses harmless magnetic fields. A. a PET scan B. an electroencephalograph C. a CAT scan D. an MRI scan Answer: 140. Which of the following techniques or instruments generates color-coded images of the brain's activity? A. computerized axial tomography B. the electroencephalograph C. magnetic resonance imaging D. positron emission tomography Answer: 141. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): A. uses the same scanning hardware as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). B. involves injecting the participant with a radioactively tagged compound, such as glucose. C. is limited because the participant cannot be repeatedly scanned. D. produces brain images that are much less detailed those produced by PET scans. Answer: 142. To identify which brain areas are most active when a person suffering from schizophrenia has hallucinations, researchers could use _____ to track the use of glucose throughout the brain. A. the MRI scan B. the PET scan C. the CAT scan D. lesions Answer: 143. Dr. Phuwani wanted to investigate the effects of nicotine on the activity of the brain. Because she did not want to expose people to radioactivity or use any invasive procedures to measure brain activity, Dr. Phuwani chose to use _____ for her measures of brain activity. A. CAT scans B. PET scans C. EEG D. f MRI Answer: 144. In comparing f MRIs to PET scans, A. PET scans provide a much sharper picture than f MRIs. B. PET scans use less radioactive glucose than f MRIs. C. f MRIs provide a picture of brain activity averaged over seconds rather than the several minutes that PET scans require. D. PET scans can be used to detail much smaller brain structures than fMRIs. Answer: 145. You and your co-researchers want to compare the details of the brain structures of musically-gifted young adolescents with those of a closely matched control group of normal, non-musical adolescents. You and your colleagues are conducting a(n) _____ brain-imaging study, and will use _____ to study the details of the brain structures. A. experimental; PET scanning B. descriptive; PET scanning C. experimental; the electroencephalograph D. descriptive; magnetic resonance imaging Answer: 146. Which of the following best describes cognitive neuroscience? A. A new scientific field that studies the neural basis of cognitive processes. B. The pseudoscience founded by Henry Lavery in the early 1900s that capitalized on the popularity of phrenology in the United States and Europe. C. A current pop psychology trend that involves performing "brain exercises" to enhance cognitive performance, especially memory, concentration, and creative problem-solving. D. The psychology specialty area that evolved during the 1940s as a direct result of the famous split-brain studies conducted by Pierre Broca and Karl Wernicke. Answer: 147. In the Chapter 2 Focus on Neuroscience feature titled "Understanding Brain Imaging Techniques," what was the main finding of the study involving the London taxi drivers? A. About two-thirds (67%) of the London taxi drivers were left-handed as compared to about one-tenth (9%) of the people in the matched control group. B. As compared to local drivers who identified common locations on a London street map, the London taxi drivers showed virtually no frontal lobe brain activity while reciting from memory the directions to specific locations. C. The brain structure called the hippocampus was significantly larger in the London taxi drivers as compared to the control subjects. D. When mentally visualizing well-known London locations, the London taxi drivers showed much greater left hemisphere brain activity as compared to the control subjects, who showed much greater right hemisphere activity. Answer: 148. Which of the follow statements was NOT discussed in the Chapter 2 "Focus on Neuroscience" feature as a potential limitation of brain imaging studies? A. Because the participants in the brain imaging studies usually have some type of brain damage, it is difficult to draw conclusions about the functioning of the healthy, intact human brain. B. Because brain-imaging research tends to involve small groups of participants, caution must be exercised in generalizing results to a wider population. C. If a psychological process is complex, it is much less likely that brain imaging will identify a specific brain region uniquely associated with that psychological process. D. Knowing that a particular psychological process activates a particular brain area does not necessarily further the explanation or understanding of the psychological process. Answer: 149. The human brain first begins developing at about: A. two to three weeks after conception. B. three months after conception. C. five months after conception. D. seven months after conception. Answer: 150. The human brain begins as a fluid-filled neural tube. This neural tube expands and develops into separate fluid-filled cavities called _____, which are at the core of the fully developed brain. A. pons B. ventricles C. hemispheres D. association areas Answer: 151. Special glial cells found in the _____ produce _____. A. medulla; neurotransmitters B. pons; hormones C. neural tube; neural pathways D. ventricles; cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 152. Between conception and birth, hundreds of thousands of neurons multiply, differentiate, and migrate to form synaptic connections. What happens to neurons that fail to form connections? A. They are "pruned" or eliminated. B. They are stored in the brain for future use. C. They ultimately make inappropriate connections that can lead to severe brain abnormalities. D. They are converted into glial cells and provide support to the remaining neurons. Answer: 153. After birth, the infant's brain: A. continues to develop new neurons at the rate of about 500,000 neurons per day for the first year of life. B. acquires forebrain structures, including the medulla and pons. C. continues to develop as neurons develop new dendrites and branching at the end of axons. D. gradually develops a cerebral cortex. Answer: 154. In the developing fetus, which brain region develops LAST? A. the hindbrain region B. the forebrain region C. the midbrain region D. the brainstem region Answer: 155. Which of the following best defines neurogenesis? A. the development of new neurons B. the first neuron to generate an action potential C. the influence of neurons on the formation of new genes D. the influence of genes on the firing rating of neurons Answer: 156. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the development and growth of the human brain? A. All of the neurons that a brain will ever have are present at birth. B. Glial cells of human brains continue to reproduce and grow in number through adulthood but neurons do not. C. At least one area of the human brain, the hippocampus, has been shown to develop new neurons in adulthood. D. There is no evidence that the human brain continues to develop new neurons beyond the first two years of life. Answer: 157. In what area of the adult human brain have researchers found evidence of growth of new neurons? A. the pons B. the hippocampus C. the medulla D. the thalamus Answer: 158. In her studies with primates, psychologist Elizabeth Gould and her colleagues found: A. evidence of limited neurogenesis in brain stem structures but not in more sophisticated brain regions. B. that electrical stimulation of the reticular formation causes the rapid onset of coma and death. C. evidence of neurogenesis in multiple brain locations. D. that the primate brain is unaffected by exposure to enriched or impoverished environments. Answer: 159. The brain stem is made up of the _____ and the _____. A. forebrain; midbrain B. cerebellum; medulla C. reticular formation; the pons D. midbrain; hindbrain Answer: 160. The right side of the brain controls movements on the left side of the body, such as the ability to kick your left leg. Where do the outgoing motor messages cross over? A. at the forebrain level B. at the midbrain level C. in the spinal cord D. at the hindbrain level Answer: 161. Which of the following is NOT a hindbrain structure? A. hypothalamus B. pons C. medulla D. cerebellum Answer: 162. The chapter prologue described the story of a young university professor named Asha, who suffered a stroke. Because Asha experienced some damage to the motor areas on the left side of her brain, she experienced: A. muscle weakness on the left and right sides of her body. B. muscle weakness only on the right side of her body. C. no muscle impairment. D. muscle weakness on the left side of her body. Answer: 163. As you are listening to a lecture, workers are repairing a wall just outside your classroom. Throughout the class, you find yourself coughing and sneezing because of the dust and fumes in the air. Which brain structure controls such vital reflexes as sneezing, coughing, and swallowing? A. the corpus callosum B. the cerebellum C. the medulla D. the thalamus Answer: 164. As you take this test, you do not have to focus on taking your next breath or making your heart beat. This is because the _____ is involved in the control of vital life functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion. A. medulla B. pons C. thalamus D. parietal lobe Answer: 165. Severe damage to the _____ would most likely result in death. A. pons B. cerebellum C. reticular formation D. medulla Answer: 166. When President John F. Kennedy was hit by a sniper's bullet in the back of his head, he died almost instantly, because the bullet destroyed the part of his brain called the _____, which controls breathing, heartbeat, and other vital body functions. A. cerebrum B. medulla C. amygdala D. thalamus Answer: 167. The _____ is a network of neurons at the base of the brain that projects signals up to higher brain regions and down to the spinal cord, and regulates attention and sleep. A. cerebellum B. neural tube C. reticular formation D. substantia nigra Answer: 168. Your pencil starts to roll off the desk and in a smooth, coordinated fashion you grab it just before it rolls off the edge. Your ability to perform this action involved which of the following brain areas? A. the cerebellum B. the hippocampus C. the amygdala D. Broca's area Answer: 169. After too many drinks at a party, your friend awkwardly stumbles into a table, almost knocking it over. Your friend's coordination for simple actions, such as walking between two tables, is reduced because the alcohol has affected his: A. medulla. B. cerebellum. C. thalamus. D. somatosensory cortex. Answer: 170. As you are walking in a crowded hallway, someone calls your name. Almost instantly, you sense that the other person is on your left. Your brain's ability to detect the direction of a sound is initially processed in the: A. medulla. B. frontal lobe. C. midbrain region. D. occipital lobe. Answer: 171. As you play a Star Trek video game, you track all of the Romulan war ships as they fly across the screen, attacking your ship, the U.S.S. Enterprise. In visually tracking the movements on the screen, the _____ plays an important role. A. hypothalamus B. hindbrain C. midbrain D. pons Answer: 172. Parkinson's disease often involves the degeneration of neurons that produce _____, which are located in a brain area called the _____. A. serotonin; somatosensory cortex B. dopamine; substantia nigra C. acetylcholine; thalamus D. norepinephrine; pons Answer: 173. The substantia nigra is: A. located in the midbrain. B. the brain location that has shown the greatest degree of neurogenesis in studies with rats and primates. C. the primary communication link between the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex. D. the point where motor signals cross over from one side of the brain to the opposite side of the body. Answer: 174. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The term substantia nigra means "dark substance." B. The substantia nigra contains almost all of the serotonin-producing neurons in the brain. C. The symptoms of Parkinson's disease are often associated with the degeneration of neurons in the substantia nigra. D. The substantia nigra is located in the midbrain. Answer: 175. Which represents the largest region of the brain? A. the forebrain B. the hindbrain C. the cerebellum D. the midbrain Answer: 176. Comparing the structure of the human brain to that of other animals reveals that: A. human brain organization bears little or no resemblance to that of lower animals, such as birds and fish. B. all animals have a cerebellum, but only humans and other primates have a cortex. C. the human cortex is much more complex than that of lower animals, which makes up for the absence of a cerebellum in the human brain. D. the basic structure of the human brain is similar to that of many other animals, but a higher proportion of the human brain is devoted to the cortex. Answer: 177. White matter is to gray matter as _____ is(are) to _____. A. thalamus; hypothalamus B. myelinated axons; cell bodies C. dendrites; glial cells and axons D. midbrain; hindbrain Answer: 178. The primary communication link between the left and right cerebral hemispheres is called: A. the hypothalamus. B. the hippocampus. C. Broca's area. D. the corpus callosum. Answer: 179. The phrase "white matter" in the brain is really referring to: A. myelinated axons. B. the large spaces on the interior of the brain called ventricles. C. the substantia nigra. D. neurons that manufacture endorphins. Answer: 180. During the middle of a test, your instructor announces that there's a typographical error on one of the questions. As you listen, the auditory information is being processed in your _____lobe. A. occipital B. frontal C. temporal D. parietal Answer: 181. Each cerebral hemisphere can be roughly divided into four lobes. Which lobe processes auditory information? A. the frontal lobe B. the parietal lobe C. the temporal lobe D. the occipital lobe Answer: 182. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Sensory and motor information are processed and integrated in association areas on the cerebral cortex. B. Body sensations such as touch, temperature, and pressure are processed in the somatosensory cortex. C. The temporal lobe contains the primary auditory cortex, which processes auditory information. D. Each part of the body has the same degree of representation on the primary motor cortex. Answer: 183. The occipital lobe is to _____ as the temporal lobe is to _____. A. vision; somatosensation B. audition; vision C. somatosensation; audition D. vision; audition Answer: 184. Standing at an arrival gate, you scan the faces of the passengers as they walk off the plane, looking for your friend. This visual information is being processed in your _____ lobe. A. occipital B. parietal C. frontal D. temporal Answer: 185. As you wait in line at the airport, the guy behind you is standing so close that his briefcase is pushing against your leg. The sensation of the briefcase touching and pushing against you is being processed in your _____ lobe. A. frontal B. occipital C. temporal D. parietal Answer: 186. Your nephew's eyes suddenly light up and he reaches out, executes a double-jump of your checker pieces, then smiles at you triumphantly. The brain signals for these voluntary actions originated in the _____ of your nephew's brain. A. somatosensory cortex B. primary motor cortex C. temporal lobe D. hippocampus Answer: 187. The signals for voluntary muscle movements originate in a band of tissue called the _____, which is located on the _____ lobe. A. primary motor cortex; parietal B. somatosensory cortex; parietal C. primary motor cortex; frontal D. association area; occipital Answer: 188. Which of the following body areas has the greatest degree of representation on the primary motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex? A. the knee B. the face C. the arm D. the feet Answer: 189. A gymnast knows where his arms and legs are as he does his tumbling routine because information about his muscles and joints is relayed to his: A. temporal lobe. B. frontal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. parietal lobe. Answer: 190. How is each part of the body represented on the somatosensory cortex? A. by the function of the body part B. by the location of the body part C. in proportion to the size of each body part D. in proportion to each body part's sensitivity to somatic sensations Answer: 191. Which parts of the body have the greatest representation on the primary motor cortex? A. hands and facial muscles B. legs and arms muscles C. head and neck muscles D. chest and back muscles Answer: 192. A large bulk of the cerebral cortex is not devoted to any particular sensory or motor function. Rather, these areas, known as _____, are generally thought to be involved in processing and integrating sensory and motor information. A. secondary cortex areas B. association areas C. the limbic system D. Broca's and Wernicke's areas Answer: 193. The most famous case study in the history of brain research involved the accidental injury of a railroad worker named Phineas Gage. The profound changes in Gage's behavior occurred because of damage to which brain area? A. the frontal lobes B. the parietal lobes C. the thalamus D. the corpus callosum Answer: 194. Which of the following statements about the Phineas Gage story is TRUE? A. When Phineas Gage's accident occurred in 1848, scientists and physicians immediately recognized that different brain areas are specialized for different tasks. B. After his injury, Phineas Gage experienced memory loss and severe aphasia. C. Following the accident, Phineas Gage's personality underwent radical changes but his ability to learn and remember new information remained intact. D. Dr. Harlow received the Nobel prize for his intensive case study of Phineas Gage. Answer: 195. Using sophisticated computer software to simulate the damage to Phineas Gage's brain, what did neuroscientists Hanna and Antonio Damasio conclude? A. Gage's inability to form new memories was caused by damage to the hippocampus. B. Gage's severe aphasia was caused by damaged to Broca's area, not Wernicke's area, as had been previously thought. C. Dr. Harlow's conclusions based on his autopsy of Phineas Gage's brain were fundamentally in error. D. That the changes in Gage's behavior and personality were probably caused by damage to his left and right frontal lobes. Answer: 196. Which of the following statements about the limbic system is FALSE? A. The limbic system is comprised of several forebrain structures, including the hypothalamus, thalamus, amygdala, and hippocampus. B. The neural circuits formed by the limbic system play critical roles in learning, memory, and emotional control. C. The notion that the limbic system is involved in producing pleasurable sensations has been disproved by contemporary research. D. The limbic system is involved in processing a variety of negative emotional states, including fear, anger, and disgust. Answer: 197. Which of the following brain structures is NOT a key component of the limbic system? A. the reticular formation B. the amygdala C. the hippocampus D. the hypothalamus Answer: 198. In the 1950s, research by neuropsychologist James Olds demonstrated that there might be some sort of "pleasure center" in the brain. In what part of the brain was this "pleasure center" believed to be located? A. frontal cortex B. somatosensory cortex C. limbic system D. association cortex Answer: 199. Neural pathways involving the neurotransmitter _____ seem to play a prominent role in the rewarding sensations of electrical stimulation of the brain. A. acetylcholine B. serotonin C. norepinephrine D. dopamine Answer: 200. After an automobile accident, Randy experienced a series of severe seizures. After the seizures stopped, Randy's ability to form new memories was greatly impaired. Which brain structure was most likely damaged by the severe seizures? A. the hypothalamus B. the hippocampus C. the somatosensory cortex D. the thalamus Answer: 201. In which brain region has neurogenesis been discovered? A. the hypothalamus B. the amygdala C. the thalamus D. the hippocampus Answer: 202. The hippocampus plays a key role in: A. regulating sleep and wakefulness. B. survival behaviors, including eating and drinking. C. forming new memories. D. emotional responses, including fear, anger, and disgust. Answer: 203. Almost all of the sensory and motor information going to and from the cerebral cortex is processed through the: A. thalamus. B. corpus callosum. C. hippocampus. D. pituitary gland. Answer: 204. Recent evidence suggests that _____ is more than just a sensory relay station and plays a key role in regulating levels of awareness. A. the pituitary gland B. the thalamus C. Broca's area D. the primary motor cortex Answer: 205. You've been studying biology in the library for the last couple of hours when you realize that you're getting really hungry and thirsty. Which brain structure played a key role in triggering feelings of hunger and thirst? A. the pituitary gland B. the corpus callosum C. the hypothalamus D. the hippocampus Answer: 206. Which brain structure regulates the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system? A. the amygdala B. the hippocampus C. the thalamus D. the hypothalamus Answer: 207. Which brain structure exerts considerable influence over the secretion of hormones throughout the body? A. the hypothalamus B. the amygdala C. the hippocampus D. the thalamus Answer: 208. Daily rhythms of sleep and wakefulness are regulated by the _____, which is found in the _____. A. suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN); hypothalamus B. reticular formation; frontal lobe C. hippocampus; hypothalamus D. cerebellum; midbrain Answer: 209. The hypothalamus exerts control over the endocrine system by directly triggering activity in the: A. amygdala B. thyroid C. pituitary gland D. hippocampus Answer: 210. If the amygdala is electrically stimulated in a monkey, which of the following behaviors is most likely to occur? A. an almost instantaneous onset of sleep B. awkward, clumsy behavior C. grooming or mating behavior D. aggressive or fearful behavior Answer: 211. Of the following brain structures, which is associated with the emotional responses of fear, disgust, and anger? A. the hypothalamus B. the amygdala C. the thalamus D. Broca's area Answer: 212. Which two limbic system structures are especially associated with forming new memories? A. The hypothalamus and the substantia nigra. B. The thalamus and the hypothalamus. C. The hippocampus and amygdala. D. The thalamus and cerebellum. Answer: 213. Which of the following illustrates the symmetrical functioning of the two cerebral hemispheres? A. Broca's area. B. The primary motor cortex. C. Wernicke's area. D. The reticular formation. Answer: 214. Cortical localization refers to the idea that: A. specific areas of the cerebral cortex are associated with specific behaviors or psychological processes. B. specific behaviors or psychological processes can shift from damaged brain areas to undamaged areas. C. brain organization is fundamentally different for left-handed versus right-handed people. D. the number of wrinkles, folds, and grooves on the surface of the brain corresponds to the intelligence level of a particular species. Answer: 215. The idea that specific psychological or cognitive functions are processed primarily on one side of the brain is called: A. cortical localization. B. lateralization of function. C. functional plasticity. D. structural plasticity. Answer: 216. When brain damage cau Answer: 217. The discoveries of Pierre Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke: A. helped identify the key structures of the limbic system. B. discredited the idea of cortical localization. C. provided compelling evidence that language and speech functions are lateralized on the left hemisphere. D. were later discredited by the work of psychologist Roger Sperry and his colleagues. Answer: 218. Following her stroke, Fernando's grandmother could understand what she read or what was being said to her. However, she had great difficulty speaking. Based on these observations, Fernando suspected that his grandmother's stroke had produced damage in: A. Wernicke's area. B. Broca's area. C. the corpus callosum. D. the hippocampus. Answer: 219. The chapter prologue described a young university professor named Asha who suffered a stroke. Following her stroke, Asha's ability to speak was not impaired, but she was unable to read and often had difficulty understanding what was said to her. Asha showed many of the symptoms that characterize: A. right-hemisphere damage. B. Broca's aphasia. C. Parkinson's disease. D. Wernicke's aphasia. Answer: 220. Broca's area is located on the _____, whereas Wernicke's area is located on the _____. A. right frontal lobe; left frontal lobe B. left temporal lobe; right temporal lobe C. left frontal lobe; left temporal lobe D. right temporal lobe; right frontal lobe Answer: 221. Damage to Wernicke's area in the brain: A. produces disruptions in the sense of balance as well as numbness in the arms and legs. B. produces difficulty speaking but does not disrupt the ability to comprehend verbal or written words. C. disrupts or destroys the ability to form new memories. D. produces no disruptions in the ability to speak but produces difficulty in comprehending written or spoken communication. Answer: 222. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Despite the fact that some people write with their left hand, all humans show left-hemisphere dominance for language functions. B. That genetics plays a role in handedness is suggested by the fact that a child has about a 1 out of 4 chance of being left-handed if both biological parents are left-handed. C. The fact that it is very easy to teach infants and young children to be left-handed strongly suggests that handedness is determined by environmental conditions, not genetics. D. The percentage of the population that is left-handed has steadily declined over the past 2,000 years. Answer: 223. Which of the following brain structures tends to be larger in left-handed people? A. hypothalamus B. pons C. corpus callosum D. thalamus Answer: 224. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Approximately 1 out of 5 people are left-handed. B. The majority of left-handed people show right-hemisphere dominance for language functions. C. Prenatal exposure to higher than normal levels of testosterone is the cause of almost all left-handedness in humans. D. Males are more likely than females to be left-handed. Answer: 225. Most left-handed people: A. process language in their left hemisphere. B. process language in the right hemisphere. C. process language in both hemispheres. D. are female. Answer: 226. Using ultrasound to observe developing fetuses, psychologist Peter Hepper discovered that: A. almost all the developing fetuses preferred sucking their left thumb but a small percentage preferred their right thumb. B. about half of the developing fetuses preferred sucking their left thumb. C. almost all the developing fetuses preferred sucking their right thumb but a small percentage preferred their left thumb. D. the developing fetus shows no hand preference and randomly alternates between sucking left and right thumbs. Answer: 227. Although her doctors tried several different medications, Shawna continued to have severe epileptic seizures. Her doctors suggested that she might be helped by surgery that would involve: A. cutting the corpus callosum. B. removing the hippocampus. C. implanting electrodes in the brain's pleasure centers. D. removing Broca's area. Answer: 228. Why was the split-brain operation first performed? A. to study the specialized abilities of the left and right hemispheres B. as a possible method to help control recurring epileptic seizures C. to identify the location of pleasure centers in the brain D. to treat people suffering from severe forms of aphasia Answer: 229. What was the logic behind the first split-brain operations that were tried experimentally with humans? A. By removing the precise brain location where epileptic seizures originated, the seizures should stop. B. By selectively removing portions of the left hemisphere, language functions should shift to the right hemisphere. C. By cutting the corpus callosum, seizure activity should be contained in just one hemisphere of the brain. D. By cutting the corpus callosum, the brain would be forced to use the left and right hemispheres for different functions. Answer: 230. Psychologist Roger Sperry is best known for: A. his discovery of "pleasure centers" in the brains of rats. B. his case studies of stroke patients with language difficulties. C. his studies of rats that were raised in "impoverished" versus "enriched" environments. D. his studies of split-brain patients. Answer: 231. Tracy is a split-brain patient seated in front of a screen. As she focuses on the middle of the screen, the image of a fork is briefly flashed on the RIGHT side of the screen. Tracy will: A. be able to verbally name the object. B. be able to use her left hand to reach under the screen and pick up the correct object. C. verbally deny that any image appeared on the screen. D. probably have an epileptic seizure. Answer: 232. Based on research with split-brain patients, we know that the _____ hemisphere is specialized for _____. A. left; emotional and nonverbal aspects of communication B. right; visual perception tasks C. right; language abilities D. left; artistic and musical appreciation Answer: 233. You're reading a novel on a lazy Sunday afternoon when your six-year-old niece asks if you will help her sort through and find the right Lego pieces to make an airplane just like the one in the Lego design booklet. Reading the novel most likely involved your _____ hemisphere, whereas matching the Lego design most likely involved your _____ hemisphere. A. right; left B. left; right C. right; right D. left; left Answer: 234. Recognizing a person but blocking on the person's name is a common experience. For most people, facial recognition is a _____ hemisphere task whereas being able to name the person is a _____ hemisphere verbal memory task. A. left; left B. right; right C. right; left D. left; right Answer: 235. The chapter prologue described the story of a young university professor named Asha who suffered a stroke. Following her stroke, many of Asha's language and speech functions were disrupted because of damage to her _____. But because her _____ was undamaged, she was able to listen to and appreciate music. A. amygdala; corpus callosum B. right hemisphere; left hemisphere C. corpus callosum; left hemisphere D. left hemisphere; right hemisphere Answer: 236. In reading these test questions, you are primarily using your _____ to understand what you are reading. A. left hemisphere B. right hemisphere C. amygdala D. medulla Answer: 237. You can thank your _____ for allowing you to appreciate music. A. hippocampus B. right hemisphere C. prefrontal association cortex D. left hemisphere Answer: 238. Functional plasticity: A. is much less likely to occur in left-handed people. B. has been demonstrated in research with primates but not with humans. C. refers to the brain's ability to shift functions from damaged to undamaged areas of the brain. D. can occur in children prior to about the age of seven. Answer: 239. Compared to being raised in an "impoverished" environment, rats that are raised in an "enriched" environment have: A. more synaptic connections in the cerebral cortex. B. a much stronger tendency to favor their left paws. C. an enlarged medulla and reticular formation. D. about half as many glial cells but almost double the number of neurons in their brain. Answer: 240. Based on animal research, which brain area is most likely to change in response to enrichment? A. cerebral cortex B. hindbrain C. cerebellum D. hypothalamus Answer: 241. Based on studies with rats, it is clear the exposure to environmental enrichment: A. has no detectable effect on the brain. B. can impact brain development during early life but not in later life. C. enhances right-hemisphere abilities but not left-hemisphere abilities. D. produces significant brain changes regardless of the age of the rats. Answer: 242. The notion of structural plasticity: A. has been demonstrated in animal studies but there is no evidence for structural plasticity in humans. B. is the idea that environmental conditions can cause physical changes in the brain's structure. C. led to the idea of surgically cutting the corpus callosum as a possible treatment for severe cases of epilepsy. D. was first demonstrated in the 1880s by Pierre Paul Broca. Answer: 243. In a study described in the chapter application, autopsies were performed comparing the brains of university graduates versus those of high school dropouts. The study found that there: A. were no structural brain differences between the two groups. B. were significantly more synaptic connections in the brains of the high school dropouts. C. were significantly more synaptic connections in the brains of the university graduates. D. was significant evidence of Alzheimer's disease in the high school dropouts but not among the university graduates. Answer: